Solved Zoology objective MCQ Questions

Solved Zoology objective MCQ Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology Practice test

1. The source of Oxygen liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)




2. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)


3. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)


4. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)


5. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)


6. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)



7. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)


8. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)


9. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)


10. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)


11. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)


12. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)


13. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)


14. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)


16. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)


17. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)


18. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)



19. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)



20. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)

Free Online objective Test on Evolution

Free Online objective Test on Evolution
Evolution Biology For Exams Practice
1. Earth originated in the past
(a) 4.6 billion years
(b) 1.6 billion years
(c) 7.6 billion years
(d) 86 billion years
Ans. (a)


2. The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(a) Van Helmont
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Miller
(d) Haeckel
Ans. (b)

3. Who said that organism develop from pre-existing organism?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Oparin
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (d)
5. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of origin of life on Earth may have been
(a) protein and amino acid
(b) protein and nucleic acid
(c) urea and nucleic acid
(d) urea and amino acid
Ans. (b)
6. STANLEY MILLER conducted an experiment to demonstrate that simple organic molecules like acids could be produced if an electric discharge is passed through a mixture of such gases as might have been present in the atmosphere of early earth. The gaseous mixture he used in the experiment comprised
(a) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapours
(b) methane, nitrogen, hydrogen, water vapours
(c) ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapours
(d) methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water vapours
Ans. (a)

7. The first genetic material was most likely
(a) a DNA polymer
(b) a DNA oligonucleotide
(c) a protein
(d) an RNA polymer
Ans. (d)

8. Study of fossils is known as
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Palaeontology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Ornithology
Ans. (b)

9. Fossils are now dated by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)

10. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)

11. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)

12. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)

13. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)

14. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)

15. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Caecum
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)

17. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)

18. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)

19. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)

20. Lamarck belonged to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)

21. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)

22. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)

23. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)

24. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) cosmic evolution
(b) descent with modification
(c) special creation
(d) spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)

25. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) the finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) the results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)

Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice

Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice
Very Useful For PMT and Other Medical Entrance Test



1. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) natural selection
(b) acquired characters
(c) use and disuse
(d) synthetic theory
Ans. (b)

2. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen containing more than the normal amount
of 18O, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(a) C6H1206 containing 180
(b) H2O containing 180
(c) CO2 containing 180
(d) Oxygen in the form of ozone
Ans. (b)


3. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) tail is an essential organ
(c) mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)

4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)

5. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)

6. Which of the following wavelength of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b) Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Yellow light
Ans. (b)

7. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)



8. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)

9. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)

10. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)

11. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwin’s?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)

12. The primary acceptor during CO2 fixation in C3 plants is
(a) ribulose biphosphate
(b) glycolate
(c) phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) triosephosphate
Ans. (a)

13. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)

14. First stable compound in C3 cycle is
(a) phosphoglyceraldehyde
(b) phosphoglyceric acid
(c) fructose -1-6 diphosphate
(d) glucose -6-phosphate
Ans. (a)

15. Famous palaeobotanist of India was
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) S.R. Kashyap
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) B. Sahni
Ans. (d)

16. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)



17. Compensation point is
(a) where there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration
(b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration
(c) when there is enough water just to meet the requirements of plant
(d) when the entire food synthesised in photosynthesis remain unutilized
Ans. (b)

18. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)

19. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)



20. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)

21. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture
(a) membranes
(b) cell wall
(c) connective
(d) muscle bundle
Ans. (b)

22. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)

23. With regards to natural eating habits, a human is
(a) an herbivore
(b) a carnivore
(c) an omnivore
(d) a granivore
Ans. (c)

24. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)

25. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of man does not secrete a
digestive enzyme?
(a) esophagus
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Mouth
Ans. (a)


26. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)


27. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)

28. Among mammals, an herbivore has
(a) more teeth than carnivore
(b) flatter teeth than carnivore
(c) teeth that are more pointed than carnivore
(d) fever teeth than a carnivore
Ans. (b)

29. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)

30. About how much saliva does a person produce each day?
(a) 100 ml
(b) 250 ml
(c) 500 ml
(d) 1500 ml
Ans. (d)

31. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)


32. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)

33. Saliva has the enzyme
(a) pepsin
(b) ptyalin
(c) trypsin
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)

34. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)


35. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)



36. The original function of the vertebrate stomach was
(a) storage
(b) digestion
(c) enzyme secretion
(d) absorption
Ans. (a)


37. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)


38. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)

39. Peyer’s patches produce
(a) lymphocytes
(b) enterokinase
(c) mucous
(d) trypsin
Ans. (a)

40. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in
(a) pancreas and secrete pancreatic juice
(b) sma1l intestine and secrete digestive enzymes
(c) stomach and secrete dilute hydrochloric
(d) stomach and secrete pepsin
Ans. (b)

41. Which of the following plays a key absorption and distribution of fats?
(a) Lacteals
(b) Villi
(c) Secretin
(d) Segmentation movements
Ans. (a)

42. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)



43. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following cells of pancreas produce insulin?
(a) Alpha cells
(b) B cells
(c) Beta cells
(d) T cells
Ans. (c)


45. Glisson’s capsules are found in
(a) kidney of frog
(b) heart of frog
(c) liver of mammals
(d) cerebellum of rabbit
Ans. (c)

Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology

Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology
MCQ Quiz questions solution Genetics Practice
Heredity and genetics objective questions and answers


1. A short length of a DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 480
(b) 120
(c) 60
(d) 240
Ans. (a)


2. DNA replication is
(a) continuous and conservative
(b) discontinuous and semiconservative
(c) semidiscontinuous and semiconservative
(d) conservative and semidiscontinuous
Ans. (b)


3. Jumping genes are now known as
(a) transposons
(b) transversion
(c) transformation
(d) transduction
Ans. (a)


4. Which enzyme catalyses the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand?
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (c)


5. Technique for detecting and screening the nutritional mutants in Neurospora crassa was developed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Bateson and Punnet
(c) Luria Dulbecco
(d) Knoll and Ruska
Ans. (a)


6. Genetic code was deciphered by chemically synthesising nucleotides by ‘
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) M. Nirenberg and H. Khorana
(d) K. Correns and Max Theiler
Ans. (c)


7. Nirenberg used an artificial mRNA poly U (UUU. . .U) which gave rise to polyphenyl alanine. This proved that
(a) artificial ,nRNA was not useful for the study of genetic code
(b) genetic code is triplet
(c) triplet UUU code for phenylalanine
(d) genetic code is non-overlapping
Ans. (c)


8. In protein synthesis the codon used as a start signal is
(a) UAA
(b) CCA
(c) AUG
(d) GCA
Ans. (c)



9. Termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by the codons
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) UCG, ACC and GCG
(c) UUG, UAG and UGA
(d) UGA, .UAG and AUG
Ans. (a)

10. Degeneracy in genetic code was found by
(a) A. Komberg
(b) Barbara Mc Clintock
(c) Bernfield and Nirenberg
(d) Hershey and Chase
Ans. (c)


11. Which of following has a clover leaf shaped structure?
(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) mRNA
Ans. (a)


12. The process “translation” means
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) ribosome assembly
Ans. (c)


13. Retrovirus has the following as its genetic material
(a) single stranded DNA
(b) double stranded duplex DNA
(c) DNA-RNA hybrid
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)


14. The information carried by RNA in retroviruses is put in the DNA &de by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA synthetase
(d) reverse transcriptase
Ans. (d)


15. A functional unit in a gene is
(a) muton
(b) recon
(c) cistron
(d) gene
Ans. (c)

16. The term genome is used for
(a) diploid set of chromosomes
(b) polyploid set of chromosomes
(c) triploid set of chromosomes
(d) haploid set of chromosomes
Ans. (d)


17. Which one of the following scientists got tile Nobel Prize for discovering the concept of mobile genetic elements in maize?
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) H. Khorana
(d) Barbara Mc Clintock
Ans. (d)


18. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is
(a) northern bloting
(b) southern bloting
(c) eastern bloting
(d) western bloting
Ans. (b)


19. The first step in genetic engineering as
(a) isolation of protein
(b) purification of protein
(c) isolation of genetic material
(d) isolation of RNA
Ans. (c)

20. H. HARRIS and J.F. WATKINS in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids
(a) mouse and man
(b) mouse and hamster
(c) mouse and chick erythrocytes
(d) mouse and Drosophila
Ans. (a)

21. Term hybridoma implies
(a) DNA-RNA hybrid
(b) recombination of DNA molecules
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) gametic fusion
Ans. (c)


22. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hamilton Othanel Smith
(b) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
(c) F. Jacob
(d) Andre Lwoff
Ans. (a)


23. Genetic engineering is used in
(a) gene therapy
(b) vaccine production
(c) obtaining transgenic plants
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)

24. Hybridisation through protoplast fusion is known as
(a) parthenogenesis
(b) parasexual hybridisation
(c) sexual hybridisation
(d) asexual hybridisation
Ans. (b)

25. The transgenic animals are those that have
(a) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)

Biology mcq questions test

Biology mcq questions test
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology

1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)

2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)

3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)

4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)

5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)

6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)

7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)

8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)

9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)

10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)

12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)

13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)

14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)

15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)

16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)

17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)

18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)

19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)

20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)

21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)

22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)

23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)

24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)

25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)

Biology MCQ quiz

Biology MCQ quiz
Biology Multiple Choice Quiz
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions


1. Lysosomes are generally found in
(a) Animal cells
(a) Plant cells
(c) Both animal and plant cells
(d) Bacterial cells
Ans. (a)

2. The filaments that specialize in moving organelles are
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Intermediate filaments
(c) Actin
(d) Microtubules
Ans. (d)

3. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) F. Sanger
Ans. (a)

4. The basis of grouping of living organisms into eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

5. Functional activities of the cell are controlled by
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Nucleolus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (d)


6. Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by
(a) Protein rhodopsin
(b) Nuclear lamina
(c) Lipid bilayer of all membranes
(d) Protein nucleoplasmin
Ans. (b)

7. Chromosomes are
(a) Extranuclear with chromatin
(b) Intranuclear without chromatin
(c) Extranuclear without chromatin
(d) Intranuclear with chromatin
Ans. (d)

8. Region of chromosomes where force is exerted during separation of dividing chromosomes is
(a) Chromonema
(b) Centromere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Celomere
Ans. (b)

9. Chromosomes having equal arms are known as
(a) Telocentric chromosome
(b) Metacentric chromosome
(c) Concentric chromosome
(d) Acrocentric chromosome
Ans. (b)

10. A chromatid represents
(a) Complete chromosome
(b) One half of a chromosome
(c) Haploid number
(d) A genome
Ans. (b)

11. Average thickness of unit cell membrane is
(a) 5Å
(b) 25 Å
(c) 75 Å
(d) 250 Å
Ans. (c)

12. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
(a) Transporting substances across the membrane
(b) cell-to-cell recognition
(c) Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) Cell adhesions
Ans. (b)

13. Which one of the following represents the best stage in which to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)

14. Who coined the term ‘meiosis’?
(a) F.F. Blackmann
(b) J.B. Farmer
(c) A. Flemming
(d) J.F. Enders
Ans. (b)

15. Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) S-phase
(b) M-phase
(c) G1 and G2 phase
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

16. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) Entire cycle
(b) S-phase
(c) G1 and S-phase
(d) G2 and S-phase
Ans. (b)


17. Which plant material is best suited for studying mitosis in classroom?
(a) Anthers
(b) Root tips
(c) Pieces of bark
(d) Shoot apex
Ans. (b)

18. Colchicines interferes in
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) DNA replication
(c) Organization and orientation of spindle elements
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)


19. The attachment of a chromosome to the spindle fiber is brought about by
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite region
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
20. Chromosomes can be counted at
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper
Environmental Science - Sample Questions
Earth & Environmental Science - Online Multiple Choice Quiz
1. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all the above
Ans. (b)


2. In nitrogen cycle the bacteria, which change proteins to ammonia, are known as
(a) bacteria of decay
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) nitrate bacteria
Ans. (a)



3. To prevent soil erosion, a farmer plants a hedge across a field. This method works
because
(a) the hedge prevents the soil from direct impact of rain water
(b) the roots of plants prevent the soil erosion
(c) the hedge absorbs minerals from the soil, which makes it most compact
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)


4. Water logged soil is
(a) physically as well as physiologically dry
(b) physically wet but physiologically dry
(c) physically dry
(d) physically as well as physiologically wet
Ans. (b)

5. Which is the characteristic feature of a physiologically dry soil?
(a) There is plenty of water in the soil
(b) Light available to the plants is not sufficient
(c) Concentration of salts is very high in soil water
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Forests
(d) Wild life
Ans. (b)


7. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of earth
(a) is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
(b) helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c) hinder higher rate of photosynthesis
(d) has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years
Ans. (b)


8. Dudhawa National Park is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (a)


9. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(a) Madagascar
(b) Mauritius
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Ans. (a)

10. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in which place in India?
(a) Lailbagh, Baaga1ore
(b) Vedanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
(c) Ranganathathittis sanctuary, Karnataka
(d) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
Ans. (d)


11. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)


12: Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) O2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)


13. If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of the earth
would be
(a) higher than the present
(b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) less than the present
(d) the same
Ans. (c)


14. Deforestation has an alarming effect on
(a) increase in grazing area
(b) weed control
(c) soi1 erosion
(d) sunlight
Ans. (c)

15. In the recent years there has been an increasing incidence of floods in the plains of
Northern India because
(a) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
(b) the rate of silting of dams has gone up
(c) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment areas
(d) increased areas of land is being self cultivated
Ans. (c)

16. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)


17. BOD stands for
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demand
(c) growing algae in large tanks
(d) biotic community
Ans. (a)


18. Which of the following is main factor in water pollution?
(a) Pesticides
(b) Industrial waste
(c) detergent
(d) NH3
Ans. (c)



19. In a highly industrialised area, which of the following will be virtually absent?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Ferns
(d) Bryophytes
Ans. (b)

20. The assistance received from Dr. Norman Earnest Borlang, an eminent agronomist from America is worth mentioning in
(a) White revolution
(b) Blue revolution
(c) Green revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

Free Zoology quiz

Free Zoology quiz
zoology quiz questions and answers
Zoology Quiz Test Zoology Questions
1. Which of the following features do all gas exchange have in common?
(a) They are enclosed within ribs
(b) They are maintained at constant temperature
(c) Exchange surfaces are moist
(d) They are exposed to air
Ans. (c)

2. Vocal cords occur in
(a) pharynx
(b) Glottis
(c) Bronchial tube
(d) Larynx
Ans. (d)

3. In man, which of the following structures is analogous to the spiracles of cockroach?
(a) Alveoli
(b) Lungs
(c) Bronchioles
(d) Nostrils
Ans. (d)

4. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Ribs
(c) Cartilaginous discs
(d) Muscles
Ans. (c)

5. A child breathes nearly
(a) 13 times a minute
(b) 26 times a minute
(c) 52 times a minute
(d) 72 times a minute
Ans. (b)


6. When diaphragm of man is completely dome sha€l it shows
(a) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration
(b) Beginning of expiratio4nd end of inspiration
(c) Increased rate of breathing
(d) Decreased rate of breathing
Ans. (a)

7. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normLbreath is called
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory capacity
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Residual volume
Ans. (a)

8. Percentage of 02 present in inhaled air in man is about
(a) 21%
(b) 78%
(c) 1%
(d) 43%
Ans. (a)

9. Gas exchange in the gills of a fish is enhanced by having the blood flow in a direction opposite to the direction of water flow, a process known as
(a) Countercurrent exchange
(b) Ventilation
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Active respiration
Ans. (a)


10. Chloride shift is essential for transport of
(a) CO2 and O2
(b) N2
(c) CO2
(d) O2
Ans. (c)

11. Mendel conducted his hybridisation experiment with
(a) chick pea
(b) pigeon pea
(c) garden pea
(d) wild pea
Ans. (c)

12. MENDEL was lucky in the choice of the material of his experiments, among the following, which contributed, to his success?
(a) He observed distinct inherited traits
(b) He qualitatively analysed his date
(c) He liked pea plants
(d) He considered only one character at one time
Ans. (d)

13. The year 1990 AD is highly significant for genetics due to
(a) principle of linkage
(b) chromosome theory of heredity
(c) rediscovery of mendelism
(d) discovery of genes
Ans. (c)

14. The physical manifestation of an organism’s genes is its
(a) environment
(b) phenotype
(c) genetic code
(d) genotype
Ans. (b)

15. Alleles are
(a) homologous chromosome
(b) chromosome that have crossed over
(c) alternate forms of gene
(d) linked genes
Ans. (c)

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Botany
Free Multiple Choice Botany For AIIMS PMT
1. True xerophytes have
(a) lower rate of transpiration than mesophytes
(b) transpiration rate equal to mesophytes
(c) transpiration rate higher than mesophytes
(d) no transpiration
Ans. (a)

2. Plants growing in extremely cold soils are
(a) halophytes
(b) psammophytes
(c) oxylophytes
(d) psychrophytes
Ans. (d)

3. Xerophytes have long roots
(a) due to light
(b) to draw water from deep water beds
(c) to give mechanical support
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

4. The orchid plants, which are found growing on the trees, are
(a) parasites
(b) epiphytes
(c) saprophytes
(d) lithophytes
Ans. (b)

5. In submerged hydrophytes functional stomata are found
(a) on lower surface of leaf
(b) on both the surface of leaf
(c) no where on the plant
(d) on upper surface of leaf
Ans. (c)

6. What is the relationship between water-fern(Azolla) and nitrogen-fixing
cyanobacteria(Anabaena) called?
(a) Symbiotic
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitic
(d) Epiphytic
Ans. (a)

7. When animals feed on other dead animals, which had died naturally or had been
killed by another animals, the relationship is termed as
(a) predation
(b) competition
(c) scavenging
(d) symbiosis
Ans. (c)

8. The first plants to reappear in a badly burned forest area will most probably be
(a) liverworts
(b) ferns
(c) grasses
(d) mosses
Ans. (b)

9. The transfer of energy from organism to organism in a natural community establishes
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
Ans. (a)

10. First link to any food chain is a green plant because
(a) fixed at one place
(b) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food
(c) they can eat every thing
(d) they respire
Ans. (b)

11. Which is a primary consumer?
(a) Scavenger
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Carnivore
(d) Herbivore
Ans. (d)

12. Trophic levels are formed by
(a) plants only
(b) animals only
(c) carnivores only
(d) organisms linked in food chain
Ans. (d)

13. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) detrivores
(d) scavengers
Ans. (a)
14. The following groups of organisms represent different trophic levels. Which out of
these four has the greatest biomass?
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(e) Autotrophs
(d) Decomposers
Ans. (c)

15. The food chain that starts from plants and goes from smaller to larger animals is
(a) predator food chain
(b) saprophytic food chain
(c) detritus food chain
(d) parasitic food chain
Ans. (a)

16. A crocodile had just eaten a lamb when a hawk saw the crocodile, attacked it and
consumed it.The hawk is in ecological terms
(a) a producer
(b) a primary consumer
(c) a secondary consumer
(d) tertiary consumer
Ans. (d)

17. Organisms of the same trophic level are
(a) deer and honey bee
(b) cheetah and wild bear
(c) snake and earthworm
(d) crow and cow
Ans. (a)


18. Driving force of ecosystem is
(a) carbohydrate in plants
(b) biomass
(c) solar energy
(d) producer
Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is upright in all the ecosystems?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of biomass
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)


20. In an aqueous environment microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as
(a) herbivores
(b) fauna and flora
(c) planktons
(d) symbionts
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of following word is related to Homo sapiens?
(a) Herbivore
(b) Carnivore
(c) Omnivore
(d) Autotroph
Ans. (c)

22. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(a) cycles of matter
(b) sedimentary cycles
(c) material cycling
(d) gaseous cycles
Ans. (a)


23. The leguminous plants are important in agriculture because
(a) they need very little water to grow
(b) they are disease resistant
(c) they help in nitrogen economy of the plants
(d) six crops of leguminous plants are harvested in a year
Ans. (c)

24. The denitrification means
(a) reduction of NO2 to ammonia by bacteria in the soil
(b) conversion of ammonia to amino acids
(c) conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
(d) oxidation of ammonia titrate
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) A1l of these
Ans. (d)

Biology questions for exams

Biology questions for exams
Exam Questions Fully Solved - Biology
Biology Exams With Solutions

1. The main function of a plasma membrane is to
(a) prevent water from entering or leaving
(b) control what goes into and out of the cell
(c) act as a sieve, allowing only lipids to pass
(d) Move the cell from place to place
Ans. (b)


2. Who was the first to explain that cells divide and that all-new cells must come from preexisting cells?
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow
Ans. (d)

3. The first person to see a cell under the microscope was
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (c)


4. Prokaryotic cell is one, which does not have
(a) Proper nucleus
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
(c) Proper nucleus and most of ce1organelles
(d) Cell wall
Ans. (c)


5. Which two organelles are thought to have originated from free-living prokaryotic cells?
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Chloroplast and nucleus
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(d) Lysosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (c)


6. The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as
(a) Middle lamella
(b) Plasmodesmata
(c) Cell membrane system
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. (b)


7. Ribosome was discovered by
(a) Porter
(b) Palade
(c) Muller
(d) Ochoa
Ans. (b)


8. Which one of the following does not have DNA?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)


9. The smallest organelles in a cell are
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Peroxysomes
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)


10. Endoplasmic reticulum was discovered by
(a) Porter and Kallmann
(b) Altmann
(c) Robertson
(d) Hofmeister
Ans. (a)


11. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesized
(a) in the mitochondria
(b) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) on free ribosomes
Ans. (b)


12. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(a) Liver cells
(b) Higher plants
(c) Blue green algae
(d) Yeast
Ans. (c)


13. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus contains a collection of flattened membrane bounded cisternae?
(a) Nucleolus
(b) Centriole
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (c)


14. What “buds off’ of the Golgi complex?
(a) Nuclei
(b) Cytoskeleton
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Vesicles
Ans. (d)


15. Major function of Golgi body is
(a) Secretion
(b) Regulation of cell temperature
(c) Active transport
(d) Transportation
Ans. (a)


16. Mitochondria were first observed by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Altmann
(c) Robert Hooker
(d) T. Svedberg
Ans. (b)


17. The inner membrane of mitochondrion is usually highly convoluted forming a series of enfolding known as
(a) Thylakoids
(b) Grana
(c) Cristae
(d) Lamellae
Ans. (c)


18. The enzymes for Krebs cycle in mitochondria are located in
(a) In perimitochondrial space
(b) On inner membrane
(c) In mitochondrial matrix
(d) On the outer membrane
Ans. (c)


19. Cell organelle, which has electron transport system, is
(a) Centriole
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleolus
Ans. (c)


20. Mitochondria and chloroplast are believed to be bacterial endosymbionts of cells because
(a) Their membranes resemble those of bacteria
(b) They do not arise do novo
(c) They have their own nucleic acids
(d) They have all the above attributes
Ans. (d)


21. Autonomic genome system is present in
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(d) Golgi body and mitochondria
Ans. (b)


22. Besides leucoplast, starch grain can develop in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chromoplast
Ans. (b)


23. Green pigments capable of capturing the energy of sunlight are located within the
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Chloroplasts
(c) Cell wall
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (b)


24. The plastids that give fruits and flowers their orange and yellow colours are the
(a) Chromoplast
(b) Protoplasts
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Leucoplasts
Ans. (a)


25. Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bags” because of
(a) Catalytic activity
(b) Hydrolytic activity
(c) Parasitic activity
(d) Saprophytic activity
Ans. (b)

PMT Sample questions

PMT Sample questions
PMT Sample Paper:Botany
Free Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Green-house gases include:
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 and NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 and N2
Ans. (a)

2. Best source of renewable energy is:
(a) cattle
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) trees
Ans.(d)

3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during:
(a) G1-phase
(b) G2-phase
d) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)

4. Multicellular fragment of a blue-green alga capable of growth into new plant is:
(a) hormocyst
(b) trichome
(c) trichogyne
(d) hormogonium
Ans. (d)


5. Karyokinesis differs from cytokinesis as it involves division of:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cell
Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium?
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) TMV
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Yeast
Ans. (b)

7. Common features between lenticels and hydathodes are:
(a) allow exchange of gases
(b) always remain closed
(c) there is no regulation of their opening and closing
(d) they occur on the same organ of the plant
Ans. (c)

8. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaunia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
Ans.(b)

9. The waxy substance associated with the walls of cork or the wall of cork cells are mostly impregnated with:
(a) cutin
(b) suberin
(c) lignin
(d) hemicellulose
Ans. (b)

10. Coenocytic mycelium occurs in:
(a) deuteromycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) phycomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
Ans. (c)

11. Lignin occurs in the cell wall of:
(a) phloem
(b) cork
(c) woody tissue/xylem cells
(d) parenchyma/epidermal cells
Ans. (c)

12. External water is not required for fertilization in:
(a) fern/Selaginella
(b) moss/Riccia
(c) Ulothrix
(d) gymnosperms/maize
Ans. (d)

13. Night jasmine, the shrub that emits fragrance during night is:
(a) Cestrum nocturnum
(b) Solanum surattense
(C) Brunfelsia hopaena
(d) Datura strainonium
Ans. (a)
14. Which one has maximum biomass?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b) Lake ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (d)

15. Pulses are obtained from:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Solaneceae
Ans. (a)

16. The wing of Pinus seed is derived from:
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegman
(c) surface of ovuliferous scales
(d) all of the above
Ans.(c)

17. Enzyme used in joining DNA fragments is:
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (a)

18. Amount of water a soil can hold against pull of gravity is called:
(a) field capacity
(b) gravitational water
(c) storage water
(d) hygroscopic water
Ans.(a)

19. The leaves develop from:
(a) nodes
(b) intemodes
(c) epidermis
(d) endodermis
Ans. (a)

20. Ochreate stipules occur in the family:
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Compositae
(d) Polygonaceae
Ans. (d)

21. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by:
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Strasburger
Ans.(b)

22. Hexaploid or modem wheat developed through:
(a) hybridomas
(b) chromosome doubling
(c) hybridization
(d) hybridization and chromosome doubling
Ans.(d)

23. Pneumatophores are useful in:
(a) respiration
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) protein synthesis
Ans. (a)

24. Lever mechanism or turn-pipe mechanism of pollination is found in:
(a) Antirrhinum
(b) Ficus
(c) Wheat
(d) Salvia
Ans.(d)

25. Mendel did not propose:
(a) dominence
(b) incomplete dominence
(c) segregation
(d) independent assortment
Ans.(b)

Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers
Solved objective questions botany
multiple choice questions answers for botany for pre medical Exams
1. Syconus fruit develops from:
(a) catkin
(b) verticillaster
(c) hypanthodium
(d) cyathium
Ans. (c)

2. The minimum time interval required between application of stimulus and production of response is
(a) presentation time
(b) relaxation time
(c) conversion time
(d) reaction time
Ans. (d)

3. Father of Indian green revolution is:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Ans. (c)

4. Chromosome end is called
(a) telomere
(b) centromere
(c) satellite
(d) maramere
Ans. (a)

5. A medicinal plant is:
(a) Cryptostegia grandiflora
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Rauwolffia serpentina
(d) Brassica oleracea
Ans. (c)

6. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:
(a) ribosomes and r-RNA
(b) only r-RNA
(c) peroxisomes
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of m-RNA
Ans. (d)

7. Number of ATP molecules produced by each NADPH is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
Ans. (a)

8. The term protoplasm was coined by:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Dujardin
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Purkinje
Ans. (d)

9. Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) cytochrome
(d) dehydrogenase
Ans. (b)

10. An algae rich in proteins is:
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(C) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Ans. (a)

11. The loading of phloem during translocation means:
(a) elongation of phloem cells
(b) separation of phloem parenchyma
(c) strengthening of phloem fibers
(d) pouring of sugars into phloem
Ans. (d)

12. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in:
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
Ans. (c)

13. In C3 plants first stable product photosynthesis during dark reaction is:
(a) PGA
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid
Ans. (a)

14. Plant hormone causing abscission of leaves, senescence, bud dormancy and inhibition of cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA
Ans. (d)

15. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to:
(a) high sunlight intensity
(b) low sunlight intensity
(c) absorption of yellow pigment from the soil
(d) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
Ans. (d)

16. Vascular cryptogams are:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Spermatophytes
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

17. Gasohol is:
(a) 20 % ethanol + 80 % petrol
(b) 20 % ethanol + 70% petrol + 10% kerosene
(c) 10% ethanol + 80% petrol+ 10% kerosene
(d) 10 % ethanol + 90 % petrol
Ans. (a)

18. Phytochrome is involved in:
(a) phototropism
(b) photorespiration
(c) photoperiodism
(d) geotropism
Ans. (c)

19. Which one of the following essential elements can land plants normally obtain directly from air?
(a) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(d) Phosphorus
Ans. (b)

20. Main function of lenticel is:
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) bleeding
(d) gaseous exchange
Ans. (d)

21. In a-helix secondary structure, hydrogen bonds lie between amide group of one amino acid and carbonyl group of:
(a) 2nd amino acid
(b) 3rd amino acid
(c) fourth amino acid
(d) fifth amino acid
Ans. (c)

22. Pomato is somatic hybrid between:
(a) poppy and potato
(b) potato and tomato
(c) poppy and tamarind
(d) poppy and tomato
Ans. (b)

23. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) Potometers
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer/barometer
Ans. (b)

24. The protein part of enzyme is:
(a) prosthatic group
(b) apoenzyme
(c) holoenzyme
(d) zymogen
Ans. (b)

25. Pesticides comprise
(a) herbicides and insecticides
(b) insecticides
(c) insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
(d) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
Ans. (d)

Zoology objective practice test

Zoology objective practice test
Zoology Objective Test Online Practice Test
Free Online Test Objective Zoology Quiz

1. Hopanoids are present in membrane of:
(a) all eukaryotes
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)

2. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over in:
(a) nerve fibre
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) skeleton muscle fibre
(d) heart
Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following statement is right?
(a) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> pechytene —> zygotene —>diplotene —> diakinesis
(b) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> diplotene —> pechytene —> diakinesis
(c) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> pechytene —> diplotene —> diakinesis
(d) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> diplotene —>zygotene —> pachytene —>diakinesis
Ans. (c)

4. Setae or chaetae are absent on:
(a) peristomium
(b) pygidium
(c) clitellum
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)

5. —10 sequence on promoter has 6 nucleotides which have a specific sequence. Which is?
(a) TATATA
(b) TAATAT
(c) TATAAT
(d) TATTAT
Ans. (c)

6. Na+ - K+ ATPase protein required how much ATP molecules for import of two K within the cell?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (d)



7. A protein, which is analogous to eukaryotic histones, present in some species of bacteria:
(a) UH protein
(b) H protein
(c) U protein
(d) RU protein
Ans. (d)

8. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called as
(a) synapse
(b) terminalisation
(c) synopsis
(d) crossing over
Ans. (c)


9. Which of the following disease was the first human disease found to be caused by a virus:
(a) smallpox
(b) colorado tick fever
(c) yellow fever
(d) rubella
Ans. (c)

10. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smoth muscle
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)



11. Who proposed the name m-RNA for the first time?
(a) Lerman
(b) Jacob and Monod
(c) Kelley
(d) Spirin
Ans. (b)


12. ADH and oxytocin are produced by:
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) neurosecretory cell bodies
Ans. (d)

13. Which type of inversion include centromere portion of a chromosome?
(a) Paracentric
(b) Pericentric
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)


14. The temperature ranges at which enzymes are maximum functional:
(a) 40— 45°C
(b) 15— 20°C
(c) 30— 45°C
(d) 20— 30°C
Ans. (c)

15. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Striated muscle
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Stratified epithelium
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres
Ans. (b)


16. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as:
(a) chlorination
(b) Hamburger phenomenon
(c) bicarbonate shift
(d) CO2 transport
Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis ?
(a) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size
(b) It does not help in the maintenance of the equilibrium in the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell
(c) The gonads and sex cells depend on the mitosis for the increase in their number
(d) The old decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by the help of mitosis
Ans. (b)

18. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro-organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as:
(a) vaccine
(b) antibiotic
(c) sera
(d) antitoxins
Ans. (a)

19. In man sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly:
(a) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(b) 2 to 4 feet/minute
(c) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(d) 2 to 4 cm/minute
Ans. (a)

20. Which of the following theory explain structure of protoplasm?
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Colloidal theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Viscosity theory
Ans. (b)



21. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that:
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly tha3l passive
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport is confined to anions and cations
(d) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
Ans. (d)

¬¬¬¬22. Ageing of an animal .body is associated with deterioration in its
(a) connective tissue
(b) glandular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) both (b) and (a)
Ans. (a)


23. Which of the following factor controls the human population density?
(a) Industry
(b) Climate
(c) Communication
(d) Natural resources
Ans. (b)

24. Christmas disease is another name for:
(a) haemophilia-B
(b) hepatitis-B
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) sleeping sickness
Ans. (a)



25. Taenia solium derives it’s energy from the breakdown of:
(a) nucleic acids
(b) amino acids
(c) glycogen
(d) glycerol
Ans. (c)

Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs

Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs
BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR PGT TGT
tgt sample paper :Biology
1. Cell theory was propounded by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel and Morgan
(d) Wallace and Darwin
Ans. (a)

2. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book
(a) Origin of Species
(b) Plant Kingdom
(c) Genra Plantarum
(d) Micrographia
Ans. (d)

3. The term ‘protoplasm’ was given by
(a) Purkinje
(b) Dujardin
(c) Brown
(d) Fischer
Ans. (a)

4. Who first coined the word “cell”?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hooke
(c) Schwann
(d) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (b)

5. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(a) Centrosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)

6. Membranes occur in
(a) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm, nuclei and starch grains
(c) Chromosomes, chloroplasts and starch grains
(d) Nuclei, chromosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (a)

7. Chemical nature of ribosomes is
(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Proteins and lipids
(c) Glucose and sucrose
(d) Proteins and RNA
Ans. (d)

8. All are membrane bounded cell organelles except
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)

9. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout the cytoplasm in a cell is
(a) golgi body
(b) mitochondria
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (c)

10. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells, which synthesise
(a) Steroids and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)

11. If cells are broken up and sedimented by centrifugation, the new structure formed in one of the fractions is
(a) Lysosome
(b) Microsome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Ans. (b)

12. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) in trapping light quanta and transforming them into chemical energy
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids and glycoproteins
(d) As energy transferring organelles
Ans. (c)

13. Besides giving out secretory vesicles the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
(a) Lysosome
(b) Plastids
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Cell plates after cell division in plants
Ans. (a)

14. Dictyosomes are
(a) Place of flagellar organelle
(b) Respiratory particle
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Class of ribosomes
Ans. (c)

15. Cellulose and hemicellulose are the constituents of cell wall are synthesized by
(a) Microbodies
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus
Ans. (d)

16. Which organelle changes the chemical energy into utilizable energy?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Microsome
Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following is NOT a non- protoplasmic cell inclusion?
(a) Cystolith
(b) Starch grain
(c) Raphide
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (d)

18. In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme and cytochrome oxidase is located?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Perimitochondrial space
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Ans. (a)

19. Mitochondria are found
(a) In all cells
(b) Only in plant cells
(c) Only in animal cells
(d) In all eukaryotic cells
Ans. (d)

20. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
(b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplast as well as mitochondria
Ans. (a)

21. If the leaf tissues are carefully fractionated, what part should be alive?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Cell wall
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans. (d)

22. The grana and stroma lamellae are the parts of
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (d)

23. When green tomatoes turn red then
(a) New chloroplast are made
(b) Chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

24. Which one of the following is credited for discovering lysosomes?
(a) M. Calvin
(b) A. Claude
(c) Christian de Duve
(d) L.C. Pauling
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following organelles are the cells ‘garbage disposal system’?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Phagosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (d)

zoology MCQ for Exams

zoology MCQ for Exams
Competitive exam question in Zoology MCQ questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
1. CO2 and 02 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) photorespiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) leaf anatomy
Ans. (b)


2. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because
(a) amount of sugar increases in them
(b) amount of organic acids decreases in them
(c) chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(d) of ageing
Ans. (c)

3. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) both from water and carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen in air
Ans. (b)

4. A specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to
(a) activate chlorophyll
(b) split water
(c) synthesis glucose
(d) reduce CO2
Ans. (a)

5. Who received Noble Prize for working out the early carbon pathway of
photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin
(b) Krebs
(c) Khorana
(d) Watson
Ans. (a)

6. It the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes double
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Ans. (c)

7. Digestion is
(a) conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(b) conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(c) conversion of food into protoplasm
(d) conversion of non-diffusible food particles into diffusible food
Ans. (d)

8. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function then these are called
(a) acrodont
(b) pleurodont
(c) homodont
(d) heterodont
Ans. (d)

9. The hardest part of a tooth is the
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp
(d) dental tubules
Ans. (b)

10. A bolus is
(a) a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva
(b) the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion in the stomach
(c) the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine
(d) indigestible materials that helps in movement and absorption
Ans. (a)

11. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of
(a) pepsin
(b) rennin
(c) HC1
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)

12. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for pepsin, are called
(a) holoenzymes
(b) actinases
(c) zymogens
(d) mucopolysaccharides
Ans. (c)

13. Gasthc digestion takes place efficiently in
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) highly alkaline medium
Ans. (a)

14. Where is bile produced?
(a) In gall bladder
(b) In blood
(c) In liver
(d) In spleen
Ans. (c)

15. Pancreas has
(a) only endocrine cells
(b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(e) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine
(d) only exocrine cells
Ans. (c)

16. The specific function of liver is
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c) histolysis
(d) glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
Ans. (d)

17. Largest gland in human body is
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) pituitary
(d) thyroid
Ans. (a)

18. The tissue respiration refers to
(a) Inspiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Expiration
Ans. (c)

19. The gas-exchange surfaces of larger aquatic animals are
(a) Tracheae
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Gill
(d) Book lungs
Ans. (c)

20. During hibernation, the frog respires by
(a) Lungs only
(b) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(c) Both skin and lungs
(d) Skin only
Ans. (d)

21. The covering of lungs is called
(a) Pericardium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) perichondrium
(d) Peritoneum
Ans. (b)

22. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to
(a) Additional need of 02 for germs
(b) Mental worry of the patient
(c) High temperature of body ‘
(d) Loss of appetite
Ans. (c)

23. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inspiration, is called as
(a) Tidal air volume
(b) Vital lung capacity
(c) Complementally air volume
(d) Total lung capacity
Ans. (b)

24. Amount of 02 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
(a) 40m1
(b) 10ml
(c) 20ml
(d) 30 ml
Ans. (c)

25. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(a) Increase
(c) Affected
(b) Decrease
(d) Stop
Ans. (a)

Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams

Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams
Zoology Quiz MCQ Objective type Assertion reason for UPSC


Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The synthesis (anabolism) and degradation (catabolism) of protoplasm deals largely with protein metabolism.
Reason (R): Proteins generally form the major constituent of living matter.
Ans. (a)

2. Assertion (A): In starvation and diabetes, the concentration of Free Fatty Acids (FFA) in the blood increases.
Reason (R): The fatty acids circulate in blood in combination with plasma albumin.
Ans. (d)

3. Assertion (A): In spite of sufficient insulin being secreted by the islets of Langerhans, diabetes mellitus may strike an individual.
Reason (R): The number of insulin receptors on the target cells decreases due to a negative feed back mechanism.
Ans. (c)


4. Assertion (A): In metamorphosis tadpole of frog, the tail material is gradually accumulated in the body region and thus helps in disappearance of the tail.
Reason (R): Lysosomes become highly active in the tail region of tadpole.
Ans. (a)

5. Assertion (A): Monocystis and Plasmodium are included in the class Sporozoa.
Reason (R): Both these genera are internal parasites.
Ans. (b)

6. Assertion (A): Blood of Pheretima is red.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin occurs in the blood corpuscles.
Ans. (c)

7. Assertion (A): Feathers of Columba are water proof.
Reason (R): They are lubricated by secretion of the buccal gland.
Ans. (c)

8. Assertion (A): Frog has large optic lobes whereas their counterpart in rabbit is much smaller.
Reason (R): In rabbit, the function of optic lobes is carried out by the cerebrum.
Ans. (c)

9. Assertion (A): Calciferol is antagonistic to calcitonin.
Reason (R): Calciferol is synergistic to parathormone.
Ans. (d)

10. Assertion (A): The immediate administration of nitrite is a highly effective treatment for cyanide poisoning.
Reason (R): Nitrite converts ferrohaemoglobin to ferrihaemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihaemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxide for cyanide.
Ans. (a)

11. Assertion (A): On the yearly basis, the net community production in a mature rain-forest tends to be very low or none.
Reason (R): In steady state communities the gross primary production tends to be totally dissipated by the combined autotrophic and heterotrophic respirations.
Ans. (d)

12. Assertion (A): Ethylene oxide has been used as an insecticide.
Reason (R): Ethylene oxide is an anti-cholinesterase.
Ans. (d)

13. Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease.
Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-l-phosphate uridyl 1-transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
Ans. (c)


14. Assertion (A): The crop milk is produced by both male and female Columba livia.
Reason (R): The males of his species have special milk producing glands.
Ans.(c)

15. Assertion (A): Adults are globular in Asteroidea and Echinoidea but cylindrical in Holothuroidea.
Reason (R): Relative development of ambs and interambs determines the shape of the adult body in echinoderms.
Ans. (d)

16. Assertion (A): Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia and Adamsia belong to Ctenophora.
Reason (R): They exhibit radial symmetry are diploblastic and have nematocyst.
Ans. No option is correct

17. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain the protein synthesis stops.
Reason (R): The termination codon reacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF-terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans. (a)

18. Assertion (A): In respiratory acidosis there is an elevation of arterial CO2 and H.
Reason (R): In hypoventilation CO2 is not eliminated as fast as it is produced.
Ans. (a)

19. Assertion (A): In their role of constricting the arterioles, the effect of vasopressin lasts much longer as compared to the effect adrenaline.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is an amine whereas adrenaline is a polypeptide.
Ans. (c)

20. Assertion (A): Approximately 90% of eukaryotic DNA is not transcribed and translated and lies apparently functionless and dormant.
Reason (R): Natural selection operated to weed out apparently unnecessary DNA.
Ans. (c)

21. Assertion (A): Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R): DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning.
Ans. (c)

22. Assertion (A): A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual1
Reason (R): Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.
Ans.(a)

23. Assertion (A): Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.
Reason (R): It is temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.
Ans. (d)

24. Assertion (A): Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.
Reason (R): Any bacterium can carry expression vector.
Ans.(c)

25. Assertion (A): During protein synthesis, peptide bond formation is a dehydration reaction.
Reason (R): Peptide bond formation is done by sharing of electrons between a carboxyl carbon of one amino acid and an amino nitrogen of another amino acid.
Ans. (b)

objective zoology for PMT

objective zoology for PMT
Free Biology Cbse Pmt Online Practice Test
question bank pmt zoology
1. Philadelphia chromosome is reported in patients suffering from:
(a) Insomnia
(b) Leukaemia
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Hepatitis
Ans. (b)

2. ‘Sudan Black B’ stain is used to stain:
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Protein
(c) Polysaccharide
(d) Lipid
Ans. (d)

3. Which one of the following said that cells originate from pre existing cells?
(a) Virchow
(b) Schleiden
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Dujardin
Ans. (a)

4. The desmosomes are concerned with:
(a) Cell division
(b) Cell adherence
(c) Cytolysis
(d) Cellu4r excretion
Ans. (b)

5. Tectonic is the study of:
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Earth’s crust
(c) Sand dunes
(d) Sun
Ans. (a)

6. Karyolymph is:
(a) Nuclear
(b) Nuclear sap
(c) Spem membrane
(d) Cell sap
Ans. (b)

7. Terminalization is a process related with
(a) Diakinesis
(b) Cytokinesis
(c) Meiosis II
(d) Mitosis
Ans. (a)

8. Ventral root of spinal nerve is composed of:
(a) Somatic motor and visceral sensory fibres
(b) Somatic sensory and visceral sensory fibres
(c) Somatic motor and visceral motor fibres
(d) Somatic sensory and visceral motor fibres
Ans. (c)

9. Which malarial parasite has the longest incubation period?
(a) Plasmodiuin vivax
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium falciparum
(d) Plasmodium malariae
Ans. (d)

10. Pathogen for French pox is:
(a) Variola
(b) Rubeola
(c) Treponema
(d) Trachorna
Ans. (c)

11. Camouflage of Chameleon is associated with:
(a) chromomere
(b) chromozone
(c) chromoplast
(d) chromatophore
Ans. (d)

12. Stenson’s duct is associated with:
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Cardi gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Mushroom gland
Ans. (a)

13. The gland controlling egg production of moulting in insects
(a) Corpora cardiacum
(b) Corpora allata
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Corpus luteum
Ans. (b)

14. A woman showing extra Barr bodies in chromosome during amniocentesis is showing that the embryo is associated with:
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Patau’s syndrome
Ans. (a)

15. Aflatoxins are produced by:
(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Traponema
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Penicillium chryosogenum
Ans. (b)

16. Lethal gene of Drosophila is:
(a) Curly wings (Cy)
(b) Plum eyes (Pm)
(c) Stubbles (Sub)
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)

17. Which of the following is viral disease?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Smallpox
Ans. (d)

18. Which of the following is not a plant product?
(a) Flax
(b) Cotton
(c) Hemp
(d) Silk
Ans. (d)

19. In earthworm, self fertilization can not occur due to:
(a) Hypogyny
(b) Protogymy
(c) Protoandry
(d) Epigymy
Ans. (c)

20. Chemoreceptor in Pila is:
(a) Radula
(b) Osphradium
(c) Ctenidum
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

21. Pounched mammals are known as:
(a) Prototherians
(b) Metatherians
(c) Eutherians
(d) Therians
Ans. (b)

22. Balbiani rings are found in:
(a) Polysomes
(b) Polytene chromosomes
(c) Autosomes
(d) Non-sense chromosomes
Ans. (b)

23. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called as:
(a) Chhorion
(b) Corona radiata
(c) Zona pellucida
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

24. A disease in many Africans which reduces oxygen uptake by blood and is genetic disease called
(a) Anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Pemecious anaemia
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans. (d)

25. In cockroach, the ootheca is formed by the secretion of:
(a) Phallic gland
(b) Mushroom gland
(c) Collaterial glan4
(d) Conglabate gland
Ans. (c)


Directions: In the following questions more than one answer given may be correct select the correct answers according to the code—
Code—
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct

26. In the immune system of body:
(1) Only protein serve as immunogens for cell mediated immunity
(2) Lipids and nucleic acid do not serve as immunogens
(3) Immunogenicity is an intrinsic property of a macromolecule
(4) Immune system recognises bacterial products and fungal parasites
Ans. (c)

27. The branches of trigeminal nerve are:
(1) Opthalmic
(2) Mandibular
(3) Glossopharyngeal
(4) Maxillary
Ans. (c)

28. Excessive secretion of somatotropin leads to a disorder called
(1) Giantism
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Cretinism
(4) Addison’s disease
Ans. (b)

29. LH in human female is:
(1) Facilitates luteinisation of granulosa cells of ovulated follicle
(2) Called ovulation hormone
(3) Helps in milk eyection
(4) Activate Leydig’s cell to secrete androgen
Ans. (b)

30. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Clitoris—erectile body in female homologous to glans penis of male
(2) Sexual inter course—coirtus
(3) Colostrum—secretion found in seminal fluid
(4) Areola—pigmented circular area around the nipple
Ans. (d)

31. The organs which have duel origin form embryonic layers:
(1) Hypophysis
(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Sense organs
(4) Pancreas
Ans. (a)

32. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Allopatric species—separated by distance barrier
(2) Darwin’s finches—unique to Galapagos Island
(3) Coacervates—aggregates of large complex organic compounds bound by a membrane
(4) Species are not—Lamarckism immutable
Ans. (a)

33. Amniocentesis is a method to:
(1) Detect genetic disorder in an unborn baby
(2) Prenatal sex-determination
(3) Medical termination of pregnancy
(4) Fertilize the egg
Ans. (b)

34. Biomedical technique commonly used are:
(1) Magneto—study of brain in health and encephalography disease
(2) PET imaging—measurment of cerebral blood volume and flow rate
(3) Nuclear induction method—discovered by Banting and Best
(4) Tomography—treatment by radiation
Ans. (a)

35. Which one is correct?
(1) Modem classification—based on phylogeny
(2) Artificial classification—Theophrastus
(3) Biometry—study of geographical distribution of organisms
(4) Natural classification—based on genetic and reproductive character
Ans. (c)

36. The larval forms of Taenia solium are:
(1) Hexacanth
(2) Bladder worm
(3) Miracidium
(4) Cysticercus
Ans. (c)

37. The amphibians which show parental care:
(1) Pipa americana
(2) Alytes obstetrecons
(3) Ichthyophis
(4) Rana tigrina
Ans. (b)

38. The striated muscles are characterised that:
(1) They are multinucleate and syncytial
(2) Sarcolemma is found over them
(3) Are found in pulmonary vein
(4) Jaw muscles are striated, voluntary and strongest
Ans. (c)

39. In the given statements:
(1) Fundic stomach is the site of digestion
(2) Cardiac glands are found in stomach
(3) Pepsinogen is secreted by paneth cells of crypts of lieberkuhn
(4) Gastric juice has pH 2.0
Ans. (c)

40. Identify the correctly matched pair:
(1) Uremia—excessive amount of urea in blood
(2) Hyperglycemia—excess glucose in blood
(3) Absence of factor-VIII—hemophilia
(4) X-linked disorder—glycosuria
Ans. (a)

41. Among the given statement:
(1) Larynx is larger in human males than in females
(2) The air tube in mammals is called trachea
(3) Bifurcation of trachea is called bronchi
(4) Sound producing organ of human female is syrinx
Ans. (a)

42. True statement about the respiratory process in human, is/are:
(1) Human males use thoracic rib cage and diaphragm for breathing while females use only thoracic rib cage
(2) In normal expiration the diaphragm is arched
(3) High temperature of body ptomates accelerated breathing
(4) The rate of respiration is slowest while eating food
Ans. (a)

43. On the basis of nature of maternal and foetal tissue, types of placenta are
(1) Haemochorial placenta
(2) Haemoendothelial placenta
(3) Cotyledonary placenta
(4) Deciduate placenta
Ans. (b)

44. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?
(1) Light chain
(2) Heavy chain
(3) Intermediate chains
(4) Plasma cells
Ans. (b)

45. Types of quill (flight) feathers are
(1) Down feathers
(2) Covert
(3) Filoplume
(4) Remiges
Ans. (c)

46. Linkage groups:
(1) Have genes which were linked together in a single chromosomes
(2) Shows independent assortment
(3) Do not show independent assortment
(4) In prokaryotes are more than one
Ans. (d)

47. G1omrular filterate is:
(1) Formed continuously by the process of ultrafilteration occurring at malpighian corpuscles in which the blood cells and the colloidal macromolecues are not allowed to pass across the filtering surface
(2) The lipid free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(3) The protein free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(4) Formed by the process of selective reabsorption
Ans. (d)

48. Robert Hooke is:
(1) Father of Cytology
(2) Coined the term ‘cell’
(3) Father of Physiology
(4) Father of Modern Genetics
Ans. (b)

49. Blood does not clot inside the vessels because
(1) Constant speedy flow of blood prevents accumulation of fibrin threads, if at all formed
(2) Absence of heparin, an anticoagulant having antithrombin activity, in blood
(3) Smoothness of the endothelial lining prevents rupture of platelets and formation of thromboplastin from them
(4) Presence of monomolecular layer of negatively charged protein adsorbed to the inner surface of endothelium which attracts the clotting factors
Ans. (d)

50. Which of the following conditions are responsible for sweating to occur?
(1) Increase of blood temperature due to excessive heat production in the body, e.g., vigorous muscular exercise
(2) Emotional conditions like fear, anger, anxiety, excitement, mental tension etc
(3) During breathing distress and cardiac abnormalities
(4) During drinking
Ans. (a)

Zoology objective test For IAS Prelims

Zoology objective test For IAS Prelims
IAS Prelims Papers Free Download Zoology
prelims IAS zoology solved Model paper
1. Which one of the following insects is known to be primitively apterous?
(a) Pediculus
(b) Cimex
(c) Xenopsylla
(d) Lepisma
Ans. (d)

2. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Sea slug 1. Scaphopoda
B. Green house slug 2. Nudibranchia
C. Squids 3. Pulmonata
D. Tooth shells 4. Cephalopoda
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (c)

3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Asteroidea— Asterias
(b) Echinoidea—Astropecten
(c) Holothuroidea— Cucumaria
(d) Crinoidea— Antedon
Ans. (b)

4. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
(a) Monocystis — Digenetic
(b) Paramecium — Conjugation
(c) Hydra — Budding
(d) Fasciola — Hermaphrodite
Ans. (a)

5. Totipotency phenomenon in Hydra is best demonstrated by
(a) Nutritive cells
(b) Nematocysts
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (c)

6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Gastropod 1. Fasciola
B. Archnida 2. Pila
C. Ciliata 3. Paramecium
D. Trematoda 4. Buthus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c)

7. In Nereis, mature and ripe gametes are discharged out of the body segments through
(a) a pair of genital ducts present in each segment that open on the ventro-lateral surface
(b) a genital duct of temporary nature that opens through a temporary pore formed in dorsally situated ciliated organ
(c) nephridiopore via nephridia present in each segment
(d) a pair of large unbranched glandular pouches or caeca that open into oesophagus, and finally through anus
Ans. (c)

8. Which one of the following is the correct order in which podomeres appear in a leg of a scorpion?
(a) Trochanter, femur, patella, coxa, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(b) Coxa, trochanter, femur, protarsus, tarsus, tibia, patella
(c) Coxa, trochanter, femur, patella, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(d) Coxa, femur, tibia, trochanter, patella, protarsus, tarsus.
Ans. (c)

9. Snails have a hard cone-shaped external shell. When left undisturbed, the animal is able to extend itself for a considerable degree beyond the mouth of the shell. However, a portion of the body always remains concealed in the interior of the conical shell even when the animal has extended itself to its utmost. Which of the reason(s) given below explain(s) this phenomenon?
(i) The body is organically connected with the interior of the shell.
(ii) The twisted shell the torsioned body presents a physical impediment that does not allow the full animal to go out.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i alone
(b) ii alone
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
Ans. (b)

10. The juvenile hormone in insect is secreted from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) mushroom gland
(d) corpora allata
Ans. (d)

11. The glochidium larval form of a freshwater bivalve survives on a fish host. In the fish, it is attached to the
(a) skin
(b) gills
(c) wall of alimentary canal
(d) lining of blood vessels
Ans. (b)

12. From the functional point of view, the adductor muscle of bivalve are
(a) non-striated fibres with sustained action
(b) striated fibres with sustained action
(c) slow-acting non-striated fibres
(d) quick-acting striated fibres
Ans. (d)

13. Match list-I (patterns of cleavage) with list-II (group of animals) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. Radial 1. Echinodermata
B. Spiral 2. Mollusca
C. Bilateral 3. Ascidia
D. Irregular 4. Coelenterate
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 13 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
1999

14. One of the major events associated with amoeboid locomotion is
(a) actin polymerization
(b) activation of acetyicholinesterase
(c) chromosome condensation
(d) microfilament disruption’
Ans. (a)

15. The protozoan species actinophrys solution is commonly known as
(a) slipper animalcule
(b) sun animalcule
(c) whell animalcule
(d) homancule
Ans. (b)

16. Consider the following statements
(i) Xenopsylla belongs to the sub-class Pterygota of the class Insecta
(ii) Locomotory organelle of Mastigophora is flagella
(iii) Euspongia is common bath sponge
(iv) Coelenterates are pseudocoelomates
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) i alone
(b) i and ii
(c) i, ii and ii
(d) ii, iii and iv
Ans. (c)

17. In which one of the following animals does the same opening function both as the mouth and the anus?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(d) Obelia
(c) Peripatus
Ans. (d)

18. Which one of the following is not applicable to all the three helminthes, Taenia, Fasciola and Planaria?
(a) Triploblastic forms
(b) Absence of metamerism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Absence of definite circulatory and respiratory systems
Ans. (c)

19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides — Round worm
(b) Enterobius vermicularis — Pin worm
(c) Drancunculus medinensis — Filarial worm
(d) Plasmodium vivax — Malarial parasite
Ans. (c)

20. Which one of the following is the correct example for a pseudocoelomate animal?
(a) Taenia solium
(b) Fasciola hepatica
(c) Schistosoma indicum
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides
Ans. (d)

21. The derids are the
(a) excretory organs situated on the side of excretory pores of ainnelids
(b) sense organs situated on each side at the level of excretory pore of nematodes
(c) associated structures near the reproductive organs of annelids
(d) excretory organs of some arthropods
Ans. (a)

22. Which one of the following annelids becomes brilliantly luminous in the dark?
(a) Pheretima
(b) Hirudo
(c) Nereis
(d) Chaetopterus
Ans. (d)

23. The following tissues exist in the body wall of earthworm
1. Epidermis
2. Longitudinal layer of muscles
3. Circular layer of muscles
4. Cuticle
5. Dermis
The correct sequence of these tissues is:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
(d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Ans. (d)

24. Most of the lower aquatic animals such as protozoans, annelids, molluscs etc., are anamonotelic, because
(a) ammonia helps in checking in flow of water into 1ody
(b) excretion of ammonia requires large amount of water which is available to these animals
(c) water available to these animals contain less nitrogen
(d) ammonia can be converted into urea
Ans. (b)

25. Molluscs with radula having rows of teeth diverging like the ribs of fan belong to
(a) Nudibranchia
(b) Scaphopoda
(c) Rhipidoglossa
(d) Docoglossa
Ans. (d)

26. Heterocotylization is a special modification during the breeding season of
(a) Loligo
(b) Octopus

(c) Nautilus
(d) Sepia
Ans. (c)

27. Ambulacral grooves are closed in
(a) Ophiuroidea
(b) Holothuroidea
(c) Crinoidea
(d) Echinoidea
Ans. (a)

28. Lambda particles in Paramecium are particles which
(a) cause the sensitive Paramecia to lyse or disintegrate
(b) induce the Paramecia to start reproducing
(c) induce the Paramecia to stop reproducing
(d) control digestion at intervals
Ans. (a)

29. Conjugation (amphimixis) type of reproduction in Paramecium is an indication of high level of specialization where individuals of
(a) different syngens participate
(b) the same syngens belonging to two opposite mating types participate
(c) same syngens and same mating type participate
(d) the same mating type participate
Ans. (b)

30. The plasma membrane of Amoeba is
(a) sufficiently firm but elastic
(b) unable to regulate the chemical exchange between the protoplasm and outside environment
(c) unable to form pseudopodia
(d) unable to perform pinocytosis through it
Ans. (a)

31. Water vascular system in Sycon exhibits which one of the following courses following water current?
(a) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
(b) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — gastral ostia —spongocoel — osculum — outside
(c) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle - excurrent canal
osculum — outside
(d) Ingressing water — Sub-dermal space — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
Ans. (a)

32. In the eurypylous leucon type water vascular system, the flagellated chamber exhibits specialization over other types in having a
(a) small chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called prosodus
(b) small chamber - which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called aphodus
(c) big chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by both prosodus and aphodus
(d) small chamber which opens into excurrent canal by abroad aperture, apopyle
Ans. (d)

33. In the adult medusoid form of Obelia, the lithocysts which coordinate swimming movements are present at the bases of
(a) all the tentacles
(b) only four tentacles, juxtaposing the termini of the four radial canals
(c) eight of the tentacles, two in each quadrant
(d) sixteen tentacles which initially appear in the newly born medusa
Ans. (c)

34. Given below are some glands of Fasciola and their respective functions:
(i) Mehlis’s glands — Shell formation
(ii) Vitelline glands — Yolk formation
(iii) Prostate glands — Sperm movement during copulation
Select the correct match using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Ans. (b)

35. Which one of the following features explains the process of apolysis in Taenia?
(a) Regeneration of segments
(b) Shedding of gravid proglottid
(c) Development of male reproductive organs
(d) Development of female reproductive organs
Ans. (b)

36. In which one of the following cnidarians is only one ventral siphonoglyph present?
(a) Alcyonaria
(b) Hexacorallia
(c) Hydrozoa
(d) Scyphozoa
Ans. (b)

37. In the life-cycle of members of the class Digenea, the correct sequence of larval multiplication is
(a) Miracidium-metacercaria-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-miracidium
(b) Sporocyst with rediae-cercaria.rediae with cercaria metacercaria-miracidium
(c) Miracidium-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-cercaria-metacercaria
(d) Metacercaria-cercaria-rediae with cercaria-sporocyst with rediae-miracidium
Ans. (c)

38. A cestode, which does not require an intermediate host is
(a) Dipkyllobothrium laturn
(b) Moniezia expansa
(c) Hymenolepis nama
(d) Taenia saginata
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following animals
I. Ascaris (Round worm)
II. Wuchereria (Filaria worm)
III. Ancylostoma (Hookworm)
1V. Fasciola (Liver fluke)
The animals which belongs to phylum Aschehninthes are
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans. (a)

40. Extra-intestinal migration is characteristic of the life history of
(a) liver-fluke
(b) intestinal round-worm
(c) malarial parasite
(d) tapeworm
Ans. (b)

41. Which one of the following pigments occurs in the blood of crustaceans?
(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Chlorocruorin
Ans. (b)

42. Ecdysone, the moulting hormone in insects is liberated from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) corpora allata
(d) X-organ
Ans. (b)

43. In which one of the following groups is the earliest known larva invariably a metanauplius?
(a) Copepoda
(b) Ostracoda
(c) Cephalocarida
(d) Branchiopoda
Ans. Any option is not correct

44. Single pair of well-developed adductor muscle and byssus gland is present in
(a) Lamellidens
(b) Mytilus
(c) Unio
(d) Pila
Ans. (b)

45. Which one of the following cephalopodan molluscs does not have the ink gland?
(a) Sepia
(b) Loligo
(c) Octopus
(d) Nautilus
Ans. (d)

46. Which one of the following molluscs does not have either an external or an internal shell?
(a) Sepia
(b) Octopus
(c) Aplysia
(d) Doris
Ans. (b)

47. In which one of the following classes of Echinodermata does one come across auricularia larva?
(a) Asteroidea
(b) Echinoidea
(c) Holothuroidea
(d) Ophiuroidea
Ans. (c)

48. Consider the following pairs:
1. Contractile — Osmoregulation vacuole
2. Syzygy — Monocystis
3. Undulating membrane — Plasmodium membrane
4. Pseudopodia — Paramecium
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)

49. Consider the following pairs:
(i) Lithocytrs — Obelia
(ii) Choanocytes — Sycon
(iii) Chloragogen cells — Pheretima
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Ans. (d)

50. Match list-I (animal phyla) with list-II (names of types of cells/tissues present in the phylum) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Porifera 1. Choanocytes
B. Coelenterata 2. Solenocytes
C. Platyhehminthes 3. Botryoidal tissue
D. Hirudinea 4. Cnidocytes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)