Solved Question Bank CBSE PMT

Solved Question Bank CBSE PMT
CBSE PMT preliminary practice solved paper
Sample Questions on Biology
1. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?
(1) Wheat
(2) Funaria
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Ustilago
Ans. 4

2. T.O. Diener discovered a
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Free infectious RNA
(3) Free infectious DNA
(4) Infectious protein
Ans. 2

3. Mannitol is the stored food in
(1) Gracillaria
(2) Chara
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus
Ans. 4

4. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Equisetum
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Marchantia

Ans:2

5. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
(1) Floral characters
(2) Evolutionary relationships
(3) Morphological features
(4) Chemical constituents
Ans:2

6. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(4) Ctenophores
Ans. :3

7. Peripatus is a connecting link between
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Ans. :4

8. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes
Ans. :4

9. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is
(1) slimymucus
(2) excretory fluid
(3) coelomic fluid
(4) haemolymph
Ans. :3

10. Plasmodesmata are
(1) Connections between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(3) Locomotory structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

11. Synapsis occurs between
(1) two homologous chromosomes
(2) a male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) spindle fibres and centromere
Ans. :1

12. Middle lamella is composed mainly of
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Calcium pectate
Ans.:4

13. Cytoskeleton is made up of
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosicmicrofibrils
Ans.:1

14. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in
(1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

Ans. :4

15. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in
(1) tip of the nose
(2) vertebrae
(3) nails
(4) ear ossicles
Ans. :1

16. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Glandular
(4) Ciliated
Ans. :4

17. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is real in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate

Ans. :2

18. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called
(1) Capping
(2) Splicing
(3) Tailing
(4) Transformation
Ans. :2

19. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ans. :3

20. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?
(1) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant

Ans. :2

Free Online objective Test on Evolution

Free Online objective Test on Evolution
Evolution Biology For Exams Practice
1. Earth originated in the past
(a) 4.6 billion years
(b) 1.6 billion years
(c) 7.6 billion years
(d) 86 billion years
Ans. (a)


2. The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(a) Van Helmont
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Miller
(d) Haeckel
Ans. (b)

3. Who said that organism develop from pre-existing organism?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Oparin
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (d)
5. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of origin of life on Earth may have been
(a) protein and amino acid
(b) protein and nucleic acid
(c) urea and nucleic acid
(d) urea and amino acid
Ans. (b)
6. STANLEY MILLER conducted an experiment to demonstrate that simple organic molecules like acids could be produced if an electric discharge is passed through a mixture of such gases as might have been present in the atmosphere of early earth. The gaseous mixture he used in the experiment comprised
(a) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapours
(b) methane, nitrogen, hydrogen, water vapours
(c) ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapours
(d) methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water vapours
Ans. (a)

7. The first genetic material was most likely
(a) a DNA polymer
(b) a DNA oligonucleotide
(c) a protein
(d) an RNA polymer
Ans. (d)

8. Study of fossils is known as
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Palaeontology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Ornithology
Ans. (b)

9. Fossils are now dated by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)

10. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)

11. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)

12. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)

13. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)

14. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)

15. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Caecum
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)

17. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)

18. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)

19. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)

20. Lamarck belonged to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)

21. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)

22. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)

23. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)

24. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) cosmic evolution
(b) descent with modification
(c) special creation
(d) spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)

25. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) the finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) the results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)

Biology mcq questions test

Biology mcq questions test
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology

1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)

2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)

3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)

4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)

5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)

6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)

7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)

8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)

9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)

10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)

12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)

13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)

14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)

15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)

16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)

17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)

18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)

19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)

20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)

21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)

22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)

23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)

24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)

25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper
Environmental Science - Sample Questions
Earth & Environmental Science - Online Multiple Choice Quiz
1. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all the above
Ans. (b)


2. In nitrogen cycle the bacteria, which change proteins to ammonia, are known as
(a) bacteria of decay
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) nitrate bacteria
Ans. (a)



3. To prevent soil erosion, a farmer plants a hedge across a field. This method works
because
(a) the hedge prevents the soil from direct impact of rain water
(b) the roots of plants prevent the soil erosion
(c) the hedge absorbs minerals from the soil, which makes it most compact
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)


4. Water logged soil is
(a) physically as well as physiologically dry
(b) physically wet but physiologically dry
(c) physically dry
(d) physically as well as physiologically wet
Ans. (b)

5. Which is the characteristic feature of a physiologically dry soil?
(a) There is plenty of water in the soil
(b) Light available to the plants is not sufficient
(c) Concentration of salts is very high in soil water
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Forests
(d) Wild life
Ans. (b)


7. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of earth
(a) is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
(b) helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c) hinder higher rate of photosynthesis
(d) has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years
Ans. (b)


8. Dudhawa National Park is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (a)


9. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(a) Madagascar
(b) Mauritius
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Ans. (a)

10. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in which place in India?
(a) Lailbagh, Baaga1ore
(b) Vedanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
(c) Ranganathathittis sanctuary, Karnataka
(d) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
Ans. (d)


11. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)


12: Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) O2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)


13. If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of the earth
would be
(a) higher than the present
(b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) less than the present
(d) the same
Ans. (c)


14. Deforestation has an alarming effect on
(a) increase in grazing area
(b) weed control
(c) soi1 erosion
(d) sunlight
Ans. (c)

15. In the recent years there has been an increasing incidence of floods in the plains of
Northern India because
(a) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
(b) the rate of silting of dams has gone up
(c) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment areas
(d) increased areas of land is being self cultivated
Ans. (c)

16. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)


17. BOD stands for
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demand
(c) growing algae in large tanks
(d) biotic community
Ans. (a)


18. Which of the following is main factor in water pollution?
(a) Pesticides
(b) Industrial waste
(c) detergent
(d) NH3
Ans. (c)



19. In a highly industrialised area, which of the following will be virtually absent?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Ferns
(d) Bryophytes
Ans. (b)

20. The assistance received from Dr. Norman Earnest Borlang, an eminent agronomist from America is worth mentioning in
(a) White revolution
(b) Blue revolution
(c) Green revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Botany
Free Multiple Choice Botany For AIIMS PMT
1. True xerophytes have
(a) lower rate of transpiration than mesophytes
(b) transpiration rate equal to mesophytes
(c) transpiration rate higher than mesophytes
(d) no transpiration
Ans. (a)

2. Plants growing in extremely cold soils are
(a) halophytes
(b) psammophytes
(c) oxylophytes
(d) psychrophytes
Ans. (d)

3. Xerophytes have long roots
(a) due to light
(b) to draw water from deep water beds
(c) to give mechanical support
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

4. The orchid plants, which are found growing on the trees, are
(a) parasites
(b) epiphytes
(c) saprophytes
(d) lithophytes
Ans. (b)

5. In submerged hydrophytes functional stomata are found
(a) on lower surface of leaf
(b) on both the surface of leaf
(c) no where on the plant
(d) on upper surface of leaf
Ans. (c)

6. What is the relationship between water-fern(Azolla) and nitrogen-fixing
cyanobacteria(Anabaena) called?
(a) Symbiotic
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitic
(d) Epiphytic
Ans. (a)

7. When animals feed on other dead animals, which had died naturally or had been
killed by another animals, the relationship is termed as
(a) predation
(b) competition
(c) scavenging
(d) symbiosis
Ans. (c)

8. The first plants to reappear in a badly burned forest area will most probably be
(a) liverworts
(b) ferns
(c) grasses
(d) mosses
Ans. (b)

9. The transfer of energy from organism to organism in a natural community establishes
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
Ans. (a)

10. First link to any food chain is a green plant because
(a) fixed at one place
(b) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food
(c) they can eat every thing
(d) they respire
Ans. (b)

11. Which is a primary consumer?
(a) Scavenger
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Carnivore
(d) Herbivore
Ans. (d)

12. Trophic levels are formed by
(a) plants only
(b) animals only
(c) carnivores only
(d) organisms linked in food chain
Ans. (d)

13. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) detrivores
(d) scavengers
Ans. (a)
14. The following groups of organisms represent different trophic levels. Which out of
these four has the greatest biomass?
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(e) Autotrophs
(d) Decomposers
Ans. (c)

15. The food chain that starts from plants and goes from smaller to larger animals is
(a) predator food chain
(b) saprophytic food chain
(c) detritus food chain
(d) parasitic food chain
Ans. (a)

16. A crocodile had just eaten a lamb when a hawk saw the crocodile, attacked it and
consumed it.The hawk is in ecological terms
(a) a producer
(b) a primary consumer
(c) a secondary consumer
(d) tertiary consumer
Ans. (d)

17. Organisms of the same trophic level are
(a) deer and honey bee
(b) cheetah and wild bear
(c) snake and earthworm
(d) crow and cow
Ans. (a)


18. Driving force of ecosystem is
(a) carbohydrate in plants
(b) biomass
(c) solar energy
(d) producer
Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is upright in all the ecosystems?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of biomass
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)


20. In an aqueous environment microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as
(a) herbivores
(b) fauna and flora
(c) planktons
(d) symbionts
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of following word is related to Homo sapiens?
(a) Herbivore
(b) Carnivore
(c) Omnivore
(d) Autotroph
Ans. (c)

22. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(a) cycles of matter
(b) sedimentary cycles
(c) material cycling
(d) gaseous cycles
Ans. (a)


23. The leguminous plants are important in agriculture because
(a) they need very little water to grow
(b) they are disease resistant
(c) they help in nitrogen economy of the plants
(d) six crops of leguminous plants are harvested in a year
Ans. (c)

24. The denitrification means
(a) reduction of NO2 to ammonia by bacteria in the soil
(b) conversion of ammonia to amino acids
(c) conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
(d) oxidation of ammonia titrate
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) A1l of these
Ans. (d)

PMT Sample questions

PMT Sample questions
PMT Sample Paper:Botany
Free Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Green-house gases include:
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 and NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 and N2
Ans. (a)

2. Best source of renewable energy is:
(a) cattle
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) trees
Ans.(d)

3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during:
(a) G1-phase
(b) G2-phase
d) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)

4. Multicellular fragment of a blue-green alga capable of growth into new plant is:
(a) hormocyst
(b) trichome
(c) trichogyne
(d) hormogonium
Ans. (d)


5. Karyokinesis differs from cytokinesis as it involves division of:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cell
Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium?
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) TMV
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Yeast
Ans. (b)

7. Common features between lenticels and hydathodes are:
(a) allow exchange of gases
(b) always remain closed
(c) there is no regulation of their opening and closing
(d) they occur on the same organ of the plant
Ans. (c)

8. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaunia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
Ans.(b)

9. The waxy substance associated with the walls of cork or the wall of cork cells are mostly impregnated with:
(a) cutin
(b) suberin
(c) lignin
(d) hemicellulose
Ans. (b)

10. Coenocytic mycelium occurs in:
(a) deuteromycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) phycomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
Ans. (c)

11. Lignin occurs in the cell wall of:
(a) phloem
(b) cork
(c) woody tissue/xylem cells
(d) parenchyma/epidermal cells
Ans. (c)

12. External water is not required for fertilization in:
(a) fern/Selaginella
(b) moss/Riccia
(c) Ulothrix
(d) gymnosperms/maize
Ans. (d)

13. Night jasmine, the shrub that emits fragrance during night is:
(a) Cestrum nocturnum
(b) Solanum surattense
(C) Brunfelsia hopaena
(d) Datura strainonium
Ans. (a)
14. Which one has maximum biomass?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b) Lake ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (d)

15. Pulses are obtained from:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Solaneceae
Ans. (a)

16. The wing of Pinus seed is derived from:
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegman
(c) surface of ovuliferous scales
(d) all of the above
Ans.(c)

17. Enzyme used in joining DNA fragments is:
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (a)

18. Amount of water a soil can hold against pull of gravity is called:
(a) field capacity
(b) gravitational water
(c) storage water
(d) hygroscopic water
Ans.(a)

19. The leaves develop from:
(a) nodes
(b) intemodes
(c) epidermis
(d) endodermis
Ans. (a)

20. Ochreate stipules occur in the family:
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Compositae
(d) Polygonaceae
Ans. (d)

21. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by:
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Strasburger
Ans.(b)

22. Hexaploid or modem wheat developed through:
(a) hybridomas
(b) chromosome doubling
(c) hybridization
(d) hybridization and chromosome doubling
Ans.(d)

23. Pneumatophores are useful in:
(a) respiration
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) protein synthesis
Ans. (a)

24. Lever mechanism or turn-pipe mechanism of pollination is found in:
(a) Antirrhinum
(b) Ficus
(c) Wheat
(d) Salvia
Ans.(d)

25. Mendel did not propose:
(a) dominence
(b) incomplete dominence
(c) segregation
(d) independent assortment
Ans.(b)

Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers
Solved objective questions botany
multiple choice questions answers for botany for pre medical Exams
1. Syconus fruit develops from:
(a) catkin
(b) verticillaster
(c) hypanthodium
(d) cyathium
Ans. (c)

2. The minimum time interval required between application of stimulus and production of response is
(a) presentation time
(b) relaxation time
(c) conversion time
(d) reaction time
Ans. (d)

3. Father of Indian green revolution is:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Ans. (c)

4. Chromosome end is called
(a) telomere
(b) centromere
(c) satellite
(d) maramere
Ans. (a)

5. A medicinal plant is:
(a) Cryptostegia grandiflora
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Rauwolffia serpentina
(d) Brassica oleracea
Ans. (c)

6. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:
(a) ribosomes and r-RNA
(b) only r-RNA
(c) peroxisomes
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of m-RNA
Ans. (d)

7. Number of ATP molecules produced by each NADPH is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
Ans. (a)

8. The term protoplasm was coined by:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Dujardin
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Purkinje
Ans. (d)

9. Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) cytochrome
(d) dehydrogenase
Ans. (b)

10. An algae rich in proteins is:
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(C) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Ans. (a)

11. The loading of phloem during translocation means:
(a) elongation of phloem cells
(b) separation of phloem parenchyma
(c) strengthening of phloem fibers
(d) pouring of sugars into phloem
Ans. (d)

12. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in:
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
Ans. (c)

13. In C3 plants first stable product photosynthesis during dark reaction is:
(a) PGA
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid
Ans. (a)

14. Plant hormone causing abscission of leaves, senescence, bud dormancy and inhibition of cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA
Ans. (d)

15. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to:
(a) high sunlight intensity
(b) low sunlight intensity
(c) absorption of yellow pigment from the soil
(d) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
Ans. (d)

16. Vascular cryptogams are:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Spermatophytes
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

17. Gasohol is:
(a) 20 % ethanol + 80 % petrol
(b) 20 % ethanol + 70% petrol + 10% kerosene
(c) 10% ethanol + 80% petrol+ 10% kerosene
(d) 10 % ethanol + 90 % petrol
Ans. (a)

18. Phytochrome is involved in:
(a) phototropism
(b) photorespiration
(c) photoperiodism
(d) geotropism
Ans. (c)

19. Which one of the following essential elements can land plants normally obtain directly from air?
(a) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(d) Phosphorus
Ans. (b)

20. Main function of lenticel is:
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) bleeding
(d) gaseous exchange
Ans. (d)

21. In a-helix secondary structure, hydrogen bonds lie between amide group of one amino acid and carbonyl group of:
(a) 2nd amino acid
(b) 3rd amino acid
(c) fourth amino acid
(d) fifth amino acid
Ans. (c)

22. Pomato is somatic hybrid between:
(a) poppy and potato
(b) potato and tomato
(c) poppy and tamarind
(d) poppy and tomato
Ans. (b)

23. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) Potometers
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer/barometer
Ans. (b)

24. The protein part of enzyme is:
(a) prosthatic group
(b) apoenzyme
(c) holoenzyme
(d) zymogen
Ans. (b)

25. Pesticides comprise
(a) herbicides and insecticides
(b) insecticides
(c) insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
(d) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
Ans. (d)