Solved Question Bank CBSE PMT
CBSE PMT preliminary practice solved paper
Sample Questions on Biology
1. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?
(1) Wheat
(2) Funaria
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Ustilago
Ans. 4
2. T.O. Diener discovered a
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Free infectious RNA
(3) Free infectious DNA
(4) Infectious protein
Ans. 2
3. Mannitol is the stored food in
(1) Gracillaria
(2) Chara
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus
Ans. 4
4. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Equisetum
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Marchantia
Ans:2
5. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
(1) Floral characters
(2) Evolutionary relationships
(3) Morphological features
(4) Chemical constituents
Ans:2
6. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(4) Ctenophores
Ans. :3
7. Peripatus is a connecting link between
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Ans. :4
8. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes
Ans. :4
9. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is
(1) slimymucus
(2) excretory fluid
(3) coelomic fluid
(4) haemolymph
Ans. :3
10. Plasmodesmata are
(1) Connections between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(3) Locomotory structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
11. Synapsis occurs between
(1) two homologous chromosomes
(2) a male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) spindle fibres and centromere
Ans. :1
12. Middle lamella is composed mainly of
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Calcium pectate
Ans.:4
13. Cytoskeleton is made up of
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosicmicrofibrils
Ans.:1
14. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in
(1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue
Ans. :4
15. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in
(1) tip of the nose
(2) vertebrae
(3) nails
(4) ear ossicles
Ans. :1
16. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Glandular
(4) Ciliated
Ans. :4
17. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is real in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate
Ans. :2
18. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called
(1) Capping
(2) Splicing
(3) Tailing
(4) Transformation
Ans. :2
19. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ans. :3
20. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?
(1) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant
Ans. :2
Friday, April 13, 2012
Friday, December 9, 2011
Solved Zoology objective MCQ Questions
Solved Zoology objective MCQ Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology Practice test
1. The source of Oxygen liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)
3. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)
4. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)
5. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)
6. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)
7. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)
8. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)
10. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)
11. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)
12. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)
13. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)
14. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)
16. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)
17. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)
18. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)
19. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology Practice test
1. The source of Oxygen liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)
3. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)
4. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)
5. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)
6. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)
7. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)
8. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)
10. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)
11. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)
12. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)
13. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)
14. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)
16. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)
17. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)
18. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)
19. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)
Wednesday, August 24, 2011
Free Online objective Test on Evolution
Free Online objective Test on Evolution
Evolution Biology For Exams Practice
1. Earth originated in the past
(a) 4.6 billion years
(b) 1.6 billion years
(c) 7.6 billion years
(d) 86 billion years
Ans. (a)
2. The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(a) Van Helmont
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Miller
(d) Haeckel
Ans. (b)
3. Who said that organism develop from pre-existing organism?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Oparin
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (d)
5. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of origin of life on Earth may have been
(a) protein and amino acid
(b) protein and nucleic acid
(c) urea and nucleic acid
(d) urea and amino acid
Ans. (b)
6. STANLEY MILLER conducted an experiment to demonstrate that simple organic molecules like acids could be produced if an electric discharge is passed through a mixture of such gases as might have been present in the atmosphere of early earth. The gaseous mixture he used in the experiment comprised
(a) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapours
(b) methane, nitrogen, hydrogen, water vapours
(c) ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapours
(d) methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water vapours
Ans. (a)
7. The first genetic material was most likely
(a) a DNA polymer
(b) a DNA oligonucleotide
(c) a protein
(d) an RNA polymer
Ans. (d)
8. Study of fossils is known as
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Palaeontology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Ornithology
Ans. (b)
9. Fossils are now dated by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)
10. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)
11. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)
12. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)
13. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)
14. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Caecum
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)
17. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)
18. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)
19. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)
20. Lamarck belonged to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)
21. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)
22. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)
23. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)
24. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) cosmic evolution
(b) descent with modification
(c) special creation
(d) spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)
25. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) the finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) the results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)
Evolution Biology For Exams Practice
1. Earth originated in the past
(a) 4.6 billion years
(b) 1.6 billion years
(c) 7.6 billion years
(d) 86 billion years
Ans. (a)
2. The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(a) Van Helmont
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Miller
(d) Haeckel
Ans. (b)
3. Who said that organism develop from pre-existing organism?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Oparin
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (d)
5. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of origin of life on Earth may have been
(a) protein and amino acid
(b) protein and nucleic acid
(c) urea and nucleic acid
(d) urea and amino acid
Ans. (b)
6. STANLEY MILLER conducted an experiment to demonstrate that simple organic molecules like acids could be produced if an electric discharge is passed through a mixture of such gases as might have been present in the atmosphere of early earth. The gaseous mixture he used in the experiment comprised
(a) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapours
(b) methane, nitrogen, hydrogen, water vapours
(c) ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapours
(d) methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water vapours
Ans. (a)
7. The first genetic material was most likely
(a) a DNA polymer
(b) a DNA oligonucleotide
(c) a protein
(d) an RNA polymer
Ans. (d)
8. Study of fossils is known as
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Palaeontology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Ornithology
Ans. (b)
9. Fossils are now dated by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)
10. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)
11. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)
12. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)
13. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)
14. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Caecum
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)
17. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)
18. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)
19. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)
20. Lamarck belonged to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)
21. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)
22. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)
23. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)
24. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) cosmic evolution
(b) descent with modification
(c) special creation
(d) spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)
25. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) the finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) the results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)
Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice
Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice
Very Useful For PMT and Other Medical Entrance Test
1. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) natural selection
(b) acquired characters
(c) use and disuse
(d) synthetic theory
Ans. (b)
2. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen containing more than the normal amount
of 18O, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(a) C6H1206 containing 180
(b) H2O containing 180
(c) CO2 containing 180
(d) Oxygen in the form of ozone
Ans. (b)
3. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) tail is an essential organ
(c) mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)
4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)
5. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following wavelength of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b) Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Yellow light
Ans. (b)
7. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)
9. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)
10. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)
11. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwin’s?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)
12. The primary acceptor during CO2 fixation in C3 plants is
(a) ribulose biphosphate
(b) glycolate
(c) phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) triosephosphate
Ans. (a)
13. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)
14. First stable compound in C3 cycle is
(a) phosphoglyceraldehyde
(b) phosphoglyceric acid
(c) fructose -1-6 diphosphate
(d) glucose -6-phosphate
Ans. (a)
15. Famous palaeobotanist of India was
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) S.R. Kashyap
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) B. Sahni
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)
17. Compensation point is
(a) where there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration
(b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration
(c) when there is enough water just to meet the requirements of plant
(d) when the entire food synthesised in photosynthesis remain unutilized
Ans. (b)
18. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)
19. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)
20. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)
21. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture
(a) membranes
(b) cell wall
(c) connective
(d) muscle bundle
Ans. (b)
22. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)
23. With regards to natural eating habits, a human is
(a) an herbivore
(b) a carnivore
(c) an omnivore
(d) a granivore
Ans. (c)
24. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)
25. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of man does not secrete a
digestive enzyme?
(a) esophagus
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Mouth
Ans. (a)
26. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)
27. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)
28. Among mammals, an herbivore has
(a) more teeth than carnivore
(b) flatter teeth than carnivore
(c) teeth that are more pointed than carnivore
(d) fever teeth than a carnivore
Ans. (b)
29. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)
30. About how much saliva does a person produce each day?
(a) 100 ml
(b) 250 ml
(c) 500 ml
(d) 1500 ml
Ans. (d)
31. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)
32. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)
33. Saliva has the enzyme
(a) pepsin
(b) ptyalin
(c) trypsin
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
34. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)
35. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)
36. The original function of the vertebrate stomach was
(a) storage
(b) digestion
(c) enzyme secretion
(d) absorption
Ans. (a)
37. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)
38. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)
39. Peyer’s patches produce
(a) lymphocytes
(b) enterokinase
(c) mucous
(d) trypsin
Ans. (a)
40. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in
(a) pancreas and secrete pancreatic juice
(b) sma1l intestine and secrete digestive enzymes
(c) stomach and secrete dilute hydrochloric
(d) stomach and secrete pepsin
Ans. (b)
41. Which of the following plays a key absorption and distribution of fats?
(a) Lacteals
(b) Villi
(c) Secretin
(d) Segmentation movements
Ans. (a)
42. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following cells of pancreas produce insulin?
(a) Alpha cells
(b) B cells
(c) Beta cells
(d) T cells
Ans. (c)
45. Glisson’s capsules are found in
(a) kidney of frog
(b) heart of frog
(c) liver of mammals
(d) cerebellum of rabbit
Ans. (c)
Very Useful For PMT and Other Medical Entrance Test
1. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) natural selection
(b) acquired characters
(c) use and disuse
(d) synthetic theory
Ans. (b)
2. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen containing more than the normal amount
of 18O, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(a) C6H1206 containing 180
(b) H2O containing 180
(c) CO2 containing 180
(d) Oxygen in the form of ozone
Ans. (b)
3. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) tail is an essential organ
(c) mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)
4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)
5. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following wavelength of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b) Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Yellow light
Ans. (b)
7. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)
9. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)
10. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)
11. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwin’s?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)
12. The primary acceptor during CO2 fixation in C3 plants is
(a) ribulose biphosphate
(b) glycolate
(c) phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) triosephosphate
Ans. (a)
13. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)
14. First stable compound in C3 cycle is
(a) phosphoglyceraldehyde
(b) phosphoglyceric acid
(c) fructose -1-6 diphosphate
(d) glucose -6-phosphate
Ans. (a)
15. Famous palaeobotanist of India was
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) S.R. Kashyap
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) B. Sahni
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)
17. Compensation point is
(a) where there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration
(b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration
(c) when there is enough water just to meet the requirements of plant
(d) when the entire food synthesised in photosynthesis remain unutilized
Ans. (b)
18. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)
19. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)
20. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)
21. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture
(a) membranes
(b) cell wall
(c) connective
(d) muscle bundle
Ans. (b)
22. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)
23. With regards to natural eating habits, a human is
(a) an herbivore
(b) a carnivore
(c) an omnivore
(d) a granivore
Ans. (c)
24. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)
25. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of man does not secrete a
digestive enzyme?
(a) esophagus
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Mouth
Ans. (a)
26. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)
27. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)
28. Among mammals, an herbivore has
(a) more teeth than carnivore
(b) flatter teeth than carnivore
(c) teeth that are more pointed than carnivore
(d) fever teeth than a carnivore
Ans. (b)
29. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)
30. About how much saliva does a person produce each day?
(a) 100 ml
(b) 250 ml
(c) 500 ml
(d) 1500 ml
Ans. (d)
31. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)
32. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)
33. Saliva has the enzyme
(a) pepsin
(b) ptyalin
(c) trypsin
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
34. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)
35. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)
36. The original function of the vertebrate stomach was
(a) storage
(b) digestion
(c) enzyme secretion
(d) absorption
Ans. (a)
37. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)
38. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)
39. Peyer’s patches produce
(a) lymphocytes
(b) enterokinase
(c) mucous
(d) trypsin
Ans. (a)
40. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in
(a) pancreas and secrete pancreatic juice
(b) sma1l intestine and secrete digestive enzymes
(c) stomach and secrete dilute hydrochloric
(d) stomach and secrete pepsin
Ans. (b)
41. Which of the following plays a key absorption and distribution of fats?
(a) Lacteals
(b) Villi
(c) Secretin
(d) Segmentation movements
Ans. (a)
42. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following cells of pancreas produce insulin?
(a) Alpha cells
(b) B cells
(c) Beta cells
(d) T cells
Ans. (c)
45. Glisson’s capsules are found in
(a) kidney of frog
(b) heart of frog
(c) liver of mammals
(d) cerebellum of rabbit
Ans. (c)
Saturday, August 6, 2011
Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology
Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology
MCQ Quiz questions solution Genetics Practice
Heredity and genetics objective questions and answers
1. A short length of a DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 480
(b) 120
(c) 60
(d) 240
Ans. (a)
2. DNA replication is
(a) continuous and conservative
(b) discontinuous and semiconservative
(c) semidiscontinuous and semiconservative
(d) conservative and semidiscontinuous
Ans. (b)
3. Jumping genes are now known as
(a) transposons
(b) transversion
(c) transformation
(d) transduction
Ans. (a)
4. Which enzyme catalyses the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand?
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (c)
5. Technique for detecting and screening the nutritional mutants in Neurospora crassa was developed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Bateson and Punnet
(c) Luria Dulbecco
(d) Knoll and Ruska
Ans. (a)
6. Genetic code was deciphered by chemically synthesising nucleotides by ‘
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) M. Nirenberg and H. Khorana
(d) K. Correns and Max Theiler
Ans. (c)
7. Nirenberg used an artificial mRNA poly U (UUU. . .U) which gave rise to polyphenyl alanine. This proved that
(a) artificial ,nRNA was not useful for the study of genetic code
(b) genetic code is triplet
(c) triplet UUU code for phenylalanine
(d) genetic code is non-overlapping
Ans. (c)
8. In protein synthesis the codon used as a start signal is
(a) UAA
(b) CCA
(c) AUG
(d) GCA
Ans. (c)
9. Termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by the codons
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) UCG, ACC and GCG
(c) UUG, UAG and UGA
(d) UGA, .UAG and AUG
Ans. (a)
10. Degeneracy in genetic code was found by
(a) A. Komberg
(b) Barbara Mc Clintock
(c) Bernfield and Nirenberg
(d) Hershey and Chase
Ans. (c)
11. Which of following has a clover leaf shaped structure?
(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) mRNA
Ans. (a)
12. The process “translation” means
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) ribosome assembly
Ans. (c)
13. Retrovirus has the following as its genetic material
(a) single stranded DNA
(b) double stranded duplex DNA
(c) DNA-RNA hybrid
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)
14. The information carried by RNA in retroviruses is put in the DNA &de by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA synthetase
(d) reverse transcriptase
Ans. (d)
15. A functional unit in a gene is
(a) muton
(b) recon
(c) cistron
(d) gene
Ans. (c)
16. The term genome is used for
(a) diploid set of chromosomes
(b) polyploid set of chromosomes
(c) triploid set of chromosomes
(d) haploid set of chromosomes
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following scientists got tile Nobel Prize for discovering the concept of mobile genetic elements in maize?
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) H. Khorana
(d) Barbara Mc Clintock
Ans. (d)
18. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is
(a) northern bloting
(b) southern bloting
(c) eastern bloting
(d) western bloting
Ans. (b)
19. The first step in genetic engineering as
(a) isolation of protein
(b) purification of protein
(c) isolation of genetic material
(d) isolation of RNA
Ans. (c)
20. H. HARRIS and J.F. WATKINS in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids
(a) mouse and man
(b) mouse and hamster
(c) mouse and chick erythrocytes
(d) mouse and Drosophila
Ans. (a)
21. Term hybridoma implies
(a) DNA-RNA hybrid
(b) recombination of DNA molecules
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) gametic fusion
Ans. (c)
22. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hamilton Othanel Smith
(b) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
(c) F. Jacob
(d) Andre Lwoff
Ans. (a)
23. Genetic engineering is used in
(a) gene therapy
(b) vaccine production
(c) obtaining transgenic plants
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
24. Hybridisation through protoplast fusion is known as
(a) parthenogenesis
(b) parasexual hybridisation
(c) sexual hybridisation
(d) asexual hybridisation
Ans. (b)
25. The transgenic animals are those that have
(a) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)
MCQ Quiz questions solution Genetics Practice
Heredity and genetics objective questions and answers
1. A short length of a DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 480
(b) 120
(c) 60
(d) 240
Ans. (a)
2. DNA replication is
(a) continuous and conservative
(b) discontinuous and semiconservative
(c) semidiscontinuous and semiconservative
(d) conservative and semidiscontinuous
Ans. (b)
3. Jumping genes are now known as
(a) transposons
(b) transversion
(c) transformation
(d) transduction
Ans. (a)
4. Which enzyme catalyses the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand?
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (c)
5. Technique for detecting and screening the nutritional mutants in Neurospora crassa was developed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Bateson and Punnet
(c) Luria Dulbecco
(d) Knoll and Ruska
Ans. (a)
6. Genetic code was deciphered by chemically synthesising nucleotides by ‘
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) M. Nirenberg and H. Khorana
(d) K. Correns and Max Theiler
Ans. (c)
7. Nirenberg used an artificial mRNA poly U (UUU. . .U) which gave rise to polyphenyl alanine. This proved that
(a) artificial ,nRNA was not useful for the study of genetic code
(b) genetic code is triplet
(c) triplet UUU code for phenylalanine
(d) genetic code is non-overlapping
Ans. (c)
8. In protein synthesis the codon used as a start signal is
(a) UAA
(b) CCA
(c) AUG
(d) GCA
Ans. (c)
9. Termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by the codons
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) UCG, ACC and GCG
(c) UUG, UAG and UGA
(d) UGA, .UAG and AUG
Ans. (a)
10. Degeneracy in genetic code was found by
(a) A. Komberg
(b) Barbara Mc Clintock
(c) Bernfield and Nirenberg
(d) Hershey and Chase
Ans. (c)
11. Which of following has a clover leaf shaped structure?
(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) mRNA
Ans. (a)
12. The process “translation” means
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) ribosome assembly
Ans. (c)
13. Retrovirus has the following as its genetic material
(a) single stranded DNA
(b) double stranded duplex DNA
(c) DNA-RNA hybrid
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)
14. The information carried by RNA in retroviruses is put in the DNA &de by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA synthetase
(d) reverse transcriptase
Ans. (d)
15. A functional unit in a gene is
(a) muton
(b) recon
(c) cistron
(d) gene
Ans. (c)
16. The term genome is used for
(a) diploid set of chromosomes
(b) polyploid set of chromosomes
(c) triploid set of chromosomes
(d) haploid set of chromosomes
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following scientists got tile Nobel Prize for discovering the concept of mobile genetic elements in maize?
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) H. Khorana
(d) Barbara Mc Clintock
Ans. (d)
18. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is
(a) northern bloting
(b) southern bloting
(c) eastern bloting
(d) western bloting
Ans. (b)
19. The first step in genetic engineering as
(a) isolation of protein
(b) purification of protein
(c) isolation of genetic material
(d) isolation of RNA
Ans. (c)
20. H. HARRIS and J.F. WATKINS in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids
(a) mouse and man
(b) mouse and hamster
(c) mouse and chick erythrocytes
(d) mouse and Drosophila
Ans. (a)
21. Term hybridoma implies
(a) DNA-RNA hybrid
(b) recombination of DNA molecules
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) gametic fusion
Ans. (c)
22. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hamilton Othanel Smith
(b) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
(c) F. Jacob
(d) Andre Lwoff
Ans. (a)
23. Genetic engineering is used in
(a) gene therapy
(b) vaccine production
(c) obtaining transgenic plants
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
24. Hybridisation through protoplast fusion is known as
(a) parthenogenesis
(b) parasexual hybridisation
(c) sexual hybridisation
(d) asexual hybridisation
Ans. (b)
25. The transgenic animals are those that have
(a) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)
Friday, July 22, 2011
Biology mcq questions test
Biology mcq questions test
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology
1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)
2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)
3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)
4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)
6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)
7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)
8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)
9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)
10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)
12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)
13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)
14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)
15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)
16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)
17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)
18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)
19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)
20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)
21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)
22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)
23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)
24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)
25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology
1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)
2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)
3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)
4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)
6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)
7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)
8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)
9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)
10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)
12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)
13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)
14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)
15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)
16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)
17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)
18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)
19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)
20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)
21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)
22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)
23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)
24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)
25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)
Monday, July 4, 2011
Biology MCQ quiz
Biology MCQ quiz
Biology Multiple Choice Quiz
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions
1. Lysosomes are generally found in
(a) Animal cells
(a) Plant cells
(c) Both animal and plant cells
(d) Bacterial cells
Ans. (a)
2. The filaments that specialize in moving organelles are
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Intermediate filaments
(c) Actin
(d) Microtubules
Ans. (d)
3. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) F. Sanger
Ans. (a)
4. The basis of grouping of living organisms into eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
5. Functional activities of the cell are controlled by
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Nucleolus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (d)
6. Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by
(a) Protein rhodopsin
(b) Nuclear lamina
(c) Lipid bilayer of all membranes
(d) Protein nucleoplasmin
Ans. (b)
7. Chromosomes are
(a) Extranuclear with chromatin
(b) Intranuclear without chromatin
(c) Extranuclear without chromatin
(d) Intranuclear with chromatin
Ans. (d)
8. Region of chromosomes where force is exerted during separation of dividing chromosomes is
(a) Chromonema
(b) Centromere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Celomere
Ans. (b)
9. Chromosomes having equal arms are known as
(a) Telocentric chromosome
(b) Metacentric chromosome
(c) Concentric chromosome
(d) Acrocentric chromosome
Ans. (b)
10. A chromatid represents
(a) Complete chromosome
(b) One half of a chromosome
(c) Haploid number
(d) A genome
Ans. (b)
11. Average thickness of unit cell membrane is
(a) 5Å
(b) 25 Å
(c) 75 Å
(d) 250 Å
Ans. (c)
12. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
(a) Transporting substances across the membrane
(b) cell-to-cell recognition
(c) Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) Cell adhesions
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following represents the best stage in which to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)
14. Who coined the term ‘meiosis’?
(a) F.F. Blackmann
(b) J.B. Farmer
(c) A. Flemming
(d) J.F. Enders
Ans. (b)
15. Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) S-phase
(b) M-phase
(c) G1 and G2 phase
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) Entire cycle
(b) S-phase
(c) G1 and S-phase
(d) G2 and S-phase
Ans. (b)
17. Which plant material is best suited for studying mitosis in classroom?
(a) Anthers
(b) Root tips
(c) Pieces of bark
(d) Shoot apex
Ans. (b)
18. Colchicines interferes in
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) DNA replication
(c) Organization and orientation of spindle elements
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
19. The attachment of a chromosome to the spindle fiber is brought about by
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite region
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
20. Chromosomes can be counted at
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)
Biology Multiple Choice Quiz
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions
1. Lysosomes are generally found in
(a) Animal cells
(a) Plant cells
(c) Both animal and plant cells
(d) Bacterial cells
Ans. (a)
2. The filaments that specialize in moving organelles are
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Intermediate filaments
(c) Actin
(d) Microtubules
Ans. (d)
3. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) F. Sanger
Ans. (a)
4. The basis of grouping of living organisms into eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
5. Functional activities of the cell are controlled by
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Nucleolus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (d)
6. Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by
(a) Protein rhodopsin
(b) Nuclear lamina
(c) Lipid bilayer of all membranes
(d) Protein nucleoplasmin
Ans. (b)
7. Chromosomes are
(a) Extranuclear with chromatin
(b) Intranuclear without chromatin
(c) Extranuclear without chromatin
(d) Intranuclear with chromatin
Ans. (d)
8. Region of chromosomes where force is exerted during separation of dividing chromosomes is
(a) Chromonema
(b) Centromere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Celomere
Ans. (b)
9. Chromosomes having equal arms are known as
(a) Telocentric chromosome
(b) Metacentric chromosome
(c) Concentric chromosome
(d) Acrocentric chromosome
Ans. (b)
10. A chromatid represents
(a) Complete chromosome
(b) One half of a chromosome
(c) Haploid number
(d) A genome
Ans. (b)
11. Average thickness of unit cell membrane is
(a) 5Å
(b) 25 Å
(c) 75 Å
(d) 250 Å
Ans. (c)
12. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
(a) Transporting substances across the membrane
(b) cell-to-cell recognition
(c) Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) Cell adhesions
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following represents the best stage in which to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)
14. Who coined the term ‘meiosis’?
(a) F.F. Blackmann
(b) J.B. Farmer
(c) A. Flemming
(d) J.F. Enders
Ans. (b)
15. Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) S-phase
(b) M-phase
(c) G1 and G2 phase
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) Entire cycle
(b) S-phase
(c) G1 and S-phase
(d) G2 and S-phase
Ans. (b)
17. Which plant material is best suited for studying mitosis in classroom?
(a) Anthers
(b) Root tips
(c) Pieces of bark
(d) Shoot apex
Ans. (b)
18. Colchicines interferes in
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) DNA replication
(c) Organization and orientation of spindle elements
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
19. The attachment of a chromosome to the spindle fiber is brought about by
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite region
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
20. Chromosomes can be counted at
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)
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