Biology mcq questions test

Biology mcq questions test
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology

1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)

2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)

3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)

4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)

5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)

6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)

7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)

8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)

9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)

10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)

12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)

13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)

14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)

15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)

16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)

17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)

18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)

19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)

20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)

21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)

22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)

23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)

24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)

25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)

Biology MCQ quiz

Biology MCQ quiz
Biology Multiple Choice Quiz
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions


1. Lysosomes are generally found in
(a) Animal cells
(a) Plant cells
(c) Both animal and plant cells
(d) Bacterial cells
Ans. (a)

2. The filaments that specialize in moving organelles are
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Intermediate filaments
(c) Actin
(d) Microtubules
Ans. (d)

3. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) F. Sanger
Ans. (a)

4. The basis of grouping of living organisms into eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

5. Functional activities of the cell are controlled by
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Nucleolus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (d)


6. Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by
(a) Protein rhodopsin
(b) Nuclear lamina
(c) Lipid bilayer of all membranes
(d) Protein nucleoplasmin
Ans. (b)

7. Chromosomes are
(a) Extranuclear with chromatin
(b) Intranuclear without chromatin
(c) Extranuclear without chromatin
(d) Intranuclear with chromatin
Ans. (d)

8. Region of chromosomes where force is exerted during separation of dividing chromosomes is
(a) Chromonema
(b) Centromere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Celomere
Ans. (b)

9. Chromosomes having equal arms are known as
(a) Telocentric chromosome
(b) Metacentric chromosome
(c) Concentric chromosome
(d) Acrocentric chromosome
Ans. (b)

10. A chromatid represents
(a) Complete chromosome
(b) One half of a chromosome
(c) Haploid number
(d) A genome
Ans. (b)

11. Average thickness of unit cell membrane is
(a) 5Å
(b) 25 Å
(c) 75 Å
(d) 250 Å
Ans. (c)

12. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
(a) Transporting substances across the membrane
(b) cell-to-cell recognition
(c) Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) Cell adhesions
Ans. (b)

13. Which one of the following represents the best stage in which to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)

14. Who coined the term ‘meiosis’?
(a) F.F. Blackmann
(b) J.B. Farmer
(c) A. Flemming
(d) J.F. Enders
Ans. (b)

15. Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) S-phase
(b) M-phase
(c) G1 and G2 phase
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

16. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) Entire cycle
(b) S-phase
(c) G1 and S-phase
(d) G2 and S-phase
Ans. (b)


17. Which plant material is best suited for studying mitosis in classroom?
(a) Anthers
(b) Root tips
(c) Pieces of bark
(d) Shoot apex
Ans. (b)

18. Colchicines interferes in
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) DNA replication
(c) Organization and orientation of spindle elements
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)


19. The attachment of a chromosome to the spindle fiber is brought about by
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite region
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
20. Chromosomes can be counted at
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper
Environmental Science - Sample Questions
Earth & Environmental Science - Online Multiple Choice Quiz
1. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all the above
Ans. (b)


2. In nitrogen cycle the bacteria, which change proteins to ammonia, are known as
(a) bacteria of decay
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) nitrate bacteria
Ans. (a)



3. To prevent soil erosion, a farmer plants a hedge across a field. This method works
because
(a) the hedge prevents the soil from direct impact of rain water
(b) the roots of plants prevent the soil erosion
(c) the hedge absorbs minerals from the soil, which makes it most compact
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)


4. Water logged soil is
(a) physically as well as physiologically dry
(b) physically wet but physiologically dry
(c) physically dry
(d) physically as well as physiologically wet
Ans. (b)

5. Which is the characteristic feature of a physiologically dry soil?
(a) There is plenty of water in the soil
(b) Light available to the plants is not sufficient
(c) Concentration of salts is very high in soil water
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Forests
(d) Wild life
Ans. (b)


7. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of earth
(a) is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
(b) helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c) hinder higher rate of photosynthesis
(d) has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years
Ans. (b)


8. Dudhawa National Park is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (a)


9. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(a) Madagascar
(b) Mauritius
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Ans. (a)

10. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in which place in India?
(a) Lailbagh, Baaga1ore
(b) Vedanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
(c) Ranganathathittis sanctuary, Karnataka
(d) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
Ans. (d)


11. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)


12: Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) O2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)


13. If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of the earth
would be
(a) higher than the present
(b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) less than the present
(d) the same
Ans. (c)


14. Deforestation has an alarming effect on
(a) increase in grazing area
(b) weed control
(c) soi1 erosion
(d) sunlight
Ans. (c)

15. In the recent years there has been an increasing incidence of floods in the plains of
Northern India because
(a) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
(b) the rate of silting of dams has gone up
(c) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment areas
(d) increased areas of land is being self cultivated
Ans. (c)

16. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)


17. BOD stands for
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demand
(c) growing algae in large tanks
(d) biotic community
Ans. (a)


18. Which of the following is main factor in water pollution?
(a) Pesticides
(b) Industrial waste
(c) detergent
(d) NH3
Ans. (c)



19. In a highly industrialised area, which of the following will be virtually absent?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Ferns
(d) Bryophytes
Ans. (b)

20. The assistance received from Dr. Norman Earnest Borlang, an eminent agronomist from America is worth mentioning in
(a) White revolution
(b) Blue revolution
(c) Green revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

Free Zoology quiz

Free Zoology quiz
zoology quiz questions and answers
Zoology Quiz Test Zoology Questions
1. Which of the following features do all gas exchange have in common?
(a) They are enclosed within ribs
(b) They are maintained at constant temperature
(c) Exchange surfaces are moist
(d) They are exposed to air
Ans. (c)

2. Vocal cords occur in
(a) pharynx
(b) Glottis
(c) Bronchial tube
(d) Larynx
Ans. (d)

3. In man, which of the following structures is analogous to the spiracles of cockroach?
(a) Alveoli
(b) Lungs
(c) Bronchioles
(d) Nostrils
Ans. (d)

4. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Ribs
(c) Cartilaginous discs
(d) Muscles
Ans. (c)

5. A child breathes nearly
(a) 13 times a minute
(b) 26 times a minute
(c) 52 times a minute
(d) 72 times a minute
Ans. (b)


6. When diaphragm of man is completely dome sha€l it shows
(a) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration
(b) Beginning of expiratio4nd end of inspiration
(c) Increased rate of breathing
(d) Decreased rate of breathing
Ans. (a)

7. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normLbreath is called
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory capacity
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Residual volume
Ans. (a)

8. Percentage of 02 present in inhaled air in man is about
(a) 21%
(b) 78%
(c) 1%
(d) 43%
Ans. (a)

9. Gas exchange in the gills of a fish is enhanced by having the blood flow in a direction opposite to the direction of water flow, a process known as
(a) Countercurrent exchange
(b) Ventilation
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Active respiration
Ans. (a)


10. Chloride shift is essential for transport of
(a) CO2 and O2
(b) N2
(c) CO2
(d) O2
Ans. (c)

11. Mendel conducted his hybridisation experiment with
(a) chick pea
(b) pigeon pea
(c) garden pea
(d) wild pea
Ans. (c)

12. MENDEL was lucky in the choice of the material of his experiments, among the following, which contributed, to his success?
(a) He observed distinct inherited traits
(b) He qualitatively analysed his date
(c) He liked pea plants
(d) He considered only one character at one time
Ans. (d)

13. The year 1990 AD is highly significant for genetics due to
(a) principle of linkage
(b) chromosome theory of heredity
(c) rediscovery of mendelism
(d) discovery of genes
Ans. (c)

14. The physical manifestation of an organism’s genes is its
(a) environment
(b) phenotype
(c) genetic code
(d) genotype
Ans. (b)

15. Alleles are
(a) homologous chromosome
(b) chromosome that have crossed over
(c) alternate forms of gene
(d) linked genes
Ans. (c)

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Botany
Free Multiple Choice Botany For AIIMS PMT
1. True xerophytes have
(a) lower rate of transpiration than mesophytes
(b) transpiration rate equal to mesophytes
(c) transpiration rate higher than mesophytes
(d) no transpiration
Ans. (a)

2. Plants growing in extremely cold soils are
(a) halophytes
(b) psammophytes
(c) oxylophytes
(d) psychrophytes
Ans. (d)

3. Xerophytes have long roots
(a) due to light
(b) to draw water from deep water beds
(c) to give mechanical support
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

4. The orchid plants, which are found growing on the trees, are
(a) parasites
(b) epiphytes
(c) saprophytes
(d) lithophytes
Ans. (b)

5. In submerged hydrophytes functional stomata are found
(a) on lower surface of leaf
(b) on both the surface of leaf
(c) no where on the plant
(d) on upper surface of leaf
Ans. (c)

6. What is the relationship between water-fern(Azolla) and nitrogen-fixing
cyanobacteria(Anabaena) called?
(a) Symbiotic
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitic
(d) Epiphytic
Ans. (a)

7. When animals feed on other dead animals, which had died naturally or had been
killed by another animals, the relationship is termed as
(a) predation
(b) competition
(c) scavenging
(d) symbiosis
Ans. (c)

8. The first plants to reappear in a badly burned forest area will most probably be
(a) liverworts
(b) ferns
(c) grasses
(d) mosses
Ans. (b)

9. The transfer of energy from organism to organism in a natural community establishes
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
Ans. (a)

10. First link to any food chain is a green plant because
(a) fixed at one place
(b) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food
(c) they can eat every thing
(d) they respire
Ans. (b)

11. Which is a primary consumer?
(a) Scavenger
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Carnivore
(d) Herbivore
Ans. (d)

12. Trophic levels are formed by
(a) plants only
(b) animals only
(c) carnivores only
(d) organisms linked in food chain
Ans. (d)

13. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) detrivores
(d) scavengers
Ans. (a)
14. The following groups of organisms represent different trophic levels. Which out of
these four has the greatest biomass?
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(e) Autotrophs
(d) Decomposers
Ans. (c)

15. The food chain that starts from plants and goes from smaller to larger animals is
(a) predator food chain
(b) saprophytic food chain
(c) detritus food chain
(d) parasitic food chain
Ans. (a)

16. A crocodile had just eaten a lamb when a hawk saw the crocodile, attacked it and
consumed it.The hawk is in ecological terms
(a) a producer
(b) a primary consumer
(c) a secondary consumer
(d) tertiary consumer
Ans. (d)

17. Organisms of the same trophic level are
(a) deer and honey bee
(b) cheetah and wild bear
(c) snake and earthworm
(d) crow and cow
Ans. (a)


18. Driving force of ecosystem is
(a) carbohydrate in plants
(b) biomass
(c) solar energy
(d) producer
Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is upright in all the ecosystems?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of biomass
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)


20. In an aqueous environment microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as
(a) herbivores
(b) fauna and flora
(c) planktons
(d) symbionts
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of following word is related to Homo sapiens?
(a) Herbivore
(b) Carnivore
(c) Omnivore
(d) Autotroph
Ans. (c)

22. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(a) cycles of matter
(b) sedimentary cycles
(c) material cycling
(d) gaseous cycles
Ans. (a)


23. The leguminous plants are important in agriculture because
(a) they need very little water to grow
(b) they are disease resistant
(c) they help in nitrogen economy of the plants
(d) six crops of leguminous plants are harvested in a year
Ans. (c)

24. The denitrification means
(a) reduction of NO2 to ammonia by bacteria in the soil
(b) conversion of ammonia to amino acids
(c) conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
(d) oxidation of ammonia titrate
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) A1l of these
Ans. (d)

Biology questions for exams

Biology questions for exams
Exam Questions Fully Solved - Biology
Biology Exams With Solutions

1. The main function of a plasma membrane is to
(a) prevent water from entering or leaving
(b) control what goes into and out of the cell
(c) act as a sieve, allowing only lipids to pass
(d) Move the cell from place to place
Ans. (b)


2. Who was the first to explain that cells divide and that all-new cells must come from preexisting cells?
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow
Ans. (d)

3. The first person to see a cell under the microscope was
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (c)


4. Prokaryotic cell is one, which does not have
(a) Proper nucleus
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
(c) Proper nucleus and most of ce1organelles
(d) Cell wall
Ans. (c)


5. Which two organelles are thought to have originated from free-living prokaryotic cells?
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Chloroplast and nucleus
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(d) Lysosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (c)


6. The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as
(a) Middle lamella
(b) Plasmodesmata
(c) Cell membrane system
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. (b)


7. Ribosome was discovered by
(a) Porter
(b) Palade
(c) Muller
(d) Ochoa
Ans. (b)


8. Which one of the following does not have DNA?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)


9. The smallest organelles in a cell are
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Peroxysomes
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)


10. Endoplasmic reticulum was discovered by
(a) Porter and Kallmann
(b) Altmann
(c) Robertson
(d) Hofmeister
Ans. (a)


11. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesized
(a) in the mitochondria
(b) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) on free ribosomes
Ans. (b)


12. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(a) Liver cells
(b) Higher plants
(c) Blue green algae
(d) Yeast
Ans. (c)


13. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus contains a collection of flattened membrane bounded cisternae?
(a) Nucleolus
(b) Centriole
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (c)


14. What “buds off’ of the Golgi complex?
(a) Nuclei
(b) Cytoskeleton
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Vesicles
Ans. (d)


15. Major function of Golgi body is
(a) Secretion
(b) Regulation of cell temperature
(c) Active transport
(d) Transportation
Ans. (a)


16. Mitochondria were first observed by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Altmann
(c) Robert Hooker
(d) T. Svedberg
Ans. (b)


17. The inner membrane of mitochondrion is usually highly convoluted forming a series of enfolding known as
(a) Thylakoids
(b) Grana
(c) Cristae
(d) Lamellae
Ans. (c)


18. The enzymes for Krebs cycle in mitochondria are located in
(a) In perimitochondrial space
(b) On inner membrane
(c) In mitochondrial matrix
(d) On the outer membrane
Ans. (c)


19. Cell organelle, which has electron transport system, is
(a) Centriole
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleolus
Ans. (c)


20. Mitochondria and chloroplast are believed to be bacterial endosymbionts of cells because
(a) Their membranes resemble those of bacteria
(b) They do not arise do novo
(c) They have their own nucleic acids
(d) They have all the above attributes
Ans. (d)


21. Autonomic genome system is present in
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(d) Golgi body and mitochondria
Ans. (b)


22. Besides leucoplast, starch grain can develop in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chromoplast
Ans. (b)


23. Green pigments capable of capturing the energy of sunlight are located within the
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Chloroplasts
(c) Cell wall
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (b)


24. The plastids that give fruits and flowers their orange and yellow colours are the
(a) Chromoplast
(b) Protoplasts
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Leucoplasts
Ans. (a)


25. Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bags” because of
(a) Catalytic activity
(b) Hydrolytic activity
(c) Parasitic activity
(d) Saprophytic activity
Ans. (b)

PMT Sample questions

PMT Sample questions
PMT Sample Paper:Botany
Free Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Green-house gases include:
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 and NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 and N2
Ans. (a)

2. Best source of renewable energy is:
(a) cattle
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) trees
Ans.(d)

3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during:
(a) G1-phase
(b) G2-phase
d) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)

4. Multicellular fragment of a blue-green alga capable of growth into new plant is:
(a) hormocyst
(b) trichome
(c) trichogyne
(d) hormogonium
Ans. (d)


5. Karyokinesis differs from cytokinesis as it involves division of:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cell
Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium?
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) TMV
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Yeast
Ans. (b)

7. Common features between lenticels and hydathodes are:
(a) allow exchange of gases
(b) always remain closed
(c) there is no regulation of their opening and closing
(d) they occur on the same organ of the plant
Ans. (c)

8. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaunia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
Ans.(b)

9. The waxy substance associated with the walls of cork or the wall of cork cells are mostly impregnated with:
(a) cutin
(b) suberin
(c) lignin
(d) hemicellulose
Ans. (b)

10. Coenocytic mycelium occurs in:
(a) deuteromycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) phycomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
Ans. (c)

11. Lignin occurs in the cell wall of:
(a) phloem
(b) cork
(c) woody tissue/xylem cells
(d) parenchyma/epidermal cells
Ans. (c)

12. External water is not required for fertilization in:
(a) fern/Selaginella
(b) moss/Riccia
(c) Ulothrix
(d) gymnosperms/maize
Ans. (d)

13. Night jasmine, the shrub that emits fragrance during night is:
(a) Cestrum nocturnum
(b) Solanum surattense
(C) Brunfelsia hopaena
(d) Datura strainonium
Ans. (a)
14. Which one has maximum biomass?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b) Lake ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (d)

15. Pulses are obtained from:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Solaneceae
Ans. (a)

16. The wing of Pinus seed is derived from:
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegman
(c) surface of ovuliferous scales
(d) all of the above
Ans.(c)

17. Enzyme used in joining DNA fragments is:
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (a)

18. Amount of water a soil can hold against pull of gravity is called:
(a) field capacity
(b) gravitational water
(c) storage water
(d) hygroscopic water
Ans.(a)

19. The leaves develop from:
(a) nodes
(b) intemodes
(c) epidermis
(d) endodermis
Ans. (a)

20. Ochreate stipules occur in the family:
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Compositae
(d) Polygonaceae
Ans. (d)

21. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by:
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Strasburger
Ans.(b)

22. Hexaploid or modem wheat developed through:
(a) hybridomas
(b) chromosome doubling
(c) hybridization
(d) hybridization and chromosome doubling
Ans.(d)

23. Pneumatophores are useful in:
(a) respiration
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) protein synthesis
Ans. (a)

24. Lever mechanism or turn-pipe mechanism of pollination is found in:
(a) Antirrhinum
(b) Ficus
(c) Wheat
(d) Salvia
Ans.(d)

25. Mendel did not propose:
(a) dominence
(b) incomplete dominence
(c) segregation
(d) independent assortment
Ans.(b)