Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice

Biology Free Exam Questions For Practice
Very Useful For PMT and Other Medical Entrance Test



1. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) natural selection
(b) acquired characters
(c) use and disuse
(d) synthetic theory
Ans. (b)

2. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen containing more than the normal amount
of 18O, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(a) C6H1206 containing 180
(b) H2O containing 180
(c) CO2 containing 180
(d) Oxygen in the form of ozone
Ans. (b)


3. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) tail is an essential organ
(c) mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)

4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is
(a) photosynthetic enzyme
(b) carbohydrate present in leaf
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c)

5. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)

6. Which of the following wavelength of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b) Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Yellow light
Ans. (b)

7. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)



8. Which of the following is the least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Red light
(b), Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Violet
Ans. (c)

9. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)

10. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) it does not require light energy
(b) cannot occur during daytime
(c) occurs more rapidly at night
(d) it can also occur in darkness
Ans. (a)

11. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwin’s?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)

12. The primary acceptor during CO2 fixation in C3 plants is
(a) ribulose biphosphate
(b) glycolate
(c) phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) triosephosphate
Ans. (a)

13. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)

14. First stable compound in C3 cycle is
(a) phosphoglyceraldehyde
(b) phosphoglyceric acid
(c) fructose -1-6 diphosphate
(d) glucose -6-phosphate
Ans. (a)

15. Famous palaeobotanist of India was
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) S.R. Kashyap
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) B. Sahni
Ans. (d)

16. Which one of the following would not limit photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(d) Chlorophyll
Ans. (a)



17. Compensation point is
(a) where there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration
(b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration
(c) when there is enough water just to meet the requirements of plant
(d) when the entire food synthesised in photosynthesis remain unutilized
Ans. (b)

18. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?
(a) The loss of all of its leaves
(b) The loss of half of its branches
(c) The loss of its bark
(d) The loss of half of its leaves
Ans. (a)

19. Phloem always flows from a
(a) sugar source to sugar sink
(b) sugar sink to sugar source
(c) leaf to the xylem to the phloem
(d) leaf to a root
Ans. (a)



20. Digestion within a digestive tract is
(a) incomplete
(b) extracellular
(c) the same as absorption
(d) an irreversible process
Ans. (b)

21. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture
(a) membranes
(b) cell wall
(c) connective
(d) muscle bundle
Ans. (b)

22. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are
(a) circulation
(b) deglutition
(c) peristalsis
(d) churning
Ans. (c)

23. With regards to natural eating habits, a human is
(a) an herbivore
(b) a carnivore
(c) an omnivore
(d) a granivore
Ans. (c)

24. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Dog
(d) Human
Ans. (a)

25. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of man does not secrete a
digestive enzyme?
(a) esophagus
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Mouth
Ans. (a)


26. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp cavity
(d) root
Ans. (a)


27. Diastema is associated with
(a) presence of certain teeth
(b) absence of certain teeth
(c) absence of tongue
(d) presence of tongue
Ans. (b)

28. Among mammals, an herbivore has
(a) more teeth than carnivore
(b) flatter teeth than carnivore
(c) teeth that are more pointed than carnivore
(d) fever teeth than a carnivore
Ans. (b)

29. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of an
ingredient in drinking water, namely
(a) fluorine
(c) boron
(b) mercury
(d) chlorine
Ans. (a)

30. About how much saliva does a person produce each day?
(a) 100 ml
(b) 250 ml
(c) 500 ml
(d) 1500 ml
Ans. (d)

31. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin digestion of
(a) protein
(b) nucleic acids
(c) facts
(d) carbohydrates
Ans. (d)


32. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into molecules of
(a) glucose and galactose
(b) glucose and fructose
(c) galactose only
(d) glucose only
Ans. (a)

33. Saliva has the enzyme
(a) pepsin
(b) ptyalin
(c) trypsin
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)

34. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH two?
(a) Trypsin
(b) pepsin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) All of above
Ans. (b)


35. Which category of compound is most concentrated energy source?
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (a)



36. The original function of the vertebrate stomach was
(a) storage
(b) digestion
(c) enzyme secretion
(d) absorption
Ans. (a)


37. If the stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid, which enzyme will not
function?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Collagenase
Ans. (c)


38. Brunner’s glands are present in the
(a) stomach
(b) liver
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Ans. (c)

39. Peyer’s patches produce
(a) lymphocytes
(b) enterokinase
(c) mucous
(d) trypsin
Ans. (a)

40. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in
(a) pancreas and secrete pancreatic juice
(b) sma1l intestine and secrete digestive enzymes
(c) stomach and secrete dilute hydrochloric
(d) stomach and secrete pepsin
Ans. (b)

41. Which of the following plays a key absorption and distribution of fats?
(a) Lacteals
(b) Villi
(c) Secretin
(d) Segmentation movements
Ans. (a)

42. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty are combined to form fats, coated with
proteins, and then transported as chylomicrons to
(a) lacteal
(b) capillaries
(c) lumen of the small intestine
(d) lumen of the large intestine
Ans. (a)



43. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?
(a) Three digestive enzymes and three hormones
(b) Two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(c) Three digestive enzymes and two hormones
(d) Three digestive enzyme and one hormone
Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following cells of pancreas produce insulin?
(a) Alpha cells
(b) B cells
(c) Beta cells
(d) T cells
Ans. (c)


45. Glisson’s capsules are found in
(a) kidney of frog
(b) heart of frog
(c) liver of mammals
(d) cerebellum of rabbit
Ans. (c)

Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology

Heredity and genetics Sample Mcq Objective test Biology
MCQ Quiz questions solution Genetics Practice
Heredity and genetics objective questions and answers


1. A short length of a DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 480
(b) 120
(c) 60
(d) 240
Ans. (a)


2. DNA replication is
(a) continuous and conservative
(b) discontinuous and semiconservative
(c) semidiscontinuous and semiconservative
(d) conservative and semidiscontinuous
Ans. (b)


3. Jumping genes are now known as
(a) transposons
(b) transversion
(c) transformation
(d) transduction
Ans. (a)


4. Which enzyme catalyses the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand?
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (c)


5. Technique for detecting and screening the nutritional mutants in Neurospora crassa was developed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Bateson and Punnet
(c) Luria Dulbecco
(d) Knoll and Ruska
Ans. (a)


6. Genetic code was deciphered by chemically synthesising nucleotides by ‘
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) M. Nirenberg and H. Khorana
(d) K. Correns and Max Theiler
Ans. (c)


7. Nirenberg used an artificial mRNA poly U (UUU. . .U) which gave rise to polyphenyl alanine. This proved that
(a) artificial ,nRNA was not useful for the study of genetic code
(b) genetic code is triplet
(c) triplet UUU code for phenylalanine
(d) genetic code is non-overlapping
Ans. (c)


8. In protein synthesis the codon used as a start signal is
(a) UAA
(b) CCA
(c) AUG
(d) GCA
Ans. (c)



9. Termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by the codons
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) UCG, ACC and GCG
(c) UUG, UAG and UGA
(d) UGA, .UAG and AUG
Ans. (a)

10. Degeneracy in genetic code was found by
(a) A. Komberg
(b) Barbara Mc Clintock
(c) Bernfield and Nirenberg
(d) Hershey and Chase
Ans. (c)


11. Which of following has a clover leaf shaped structure?
(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) mRNA
Ans. (a)


12. The process “translation” means
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) ribosome assembly
Ans. (c)


13. Retrovirus has the following as its genetic material
(a) single stranded DNA
(b) double stranded duplex DNA
(c) DNA-RNA hybrid
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)


14. The information carried by RNA in retroviruses is put in the DNA &de by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA synthetase
(d) reverse transcriptase
Ans. (d)


15. A functional unit in a gene is
(a) muton
(b) recon
(c) cistron
(d) gene
Ans. (c)

16. The term genome is used for
(a) diploid set of chromosomes
(b) polyploid set of chromosomes
(c) triploid set of chromosomes
(d) haploid set of chromosomes
Ans. (d)


17. Which one of the following scientists got tile Nobel Prize for discovering the concept of mobile genetic elements in maize?
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) H. Khorana
(d) Barbara Mc Clintock
Ans. (d)


18. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is
(a) northern bloting
(b) southern bloting
(c) eastern bloting
(d) western bloting
Ans. (b)


19. The first step in genetic engineering as
(a) isolation of protein
(b) purification of protein
(c) isolation of genetic material
(d) isolation of RNA
Ans. (c)

20. H. HARRIS and J.F. WATKINS in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids
(a) mouse and man
(b) mouse and hamster
(c) mouse and chick erythrocytes
(d) mouse and Drosophila
Ans. (a)

21. Term hybridoma implies
(a) DNA-RNA hybrid
(b) recombination of DNA molecules
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) gametic fusion
Ans. (c)


22. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hamilton Othanel Smith
(b) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
(c) F. Jacob
(d) Andre Lwoff
Ans. (a)


23. Genetic engineering is used in
(a) gene therapy
(b) vaccine production
(c) obtaining transgenic plants
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)

24. Hybridisation through protoplast fusion is known as
(a) parthenogenesis
(b) parasexual hybridisation
(c) sexual hybridisation
(d) asexual hybridisation
Ans. (b)

25. The transgenic animals are those that have
(a) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells
(c) foreign RNA in all its cells
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)

Biology mcq questions test

Biology mcq questions test
Free Multiple Choice Question In Biology Online Practice Test
mcq exams multiple choice questins Biology

1. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because
(a) Water will accumulate in blood
(b) Urea will not be excreted
(c) Immune response will be suppressed
(d) Glucose will be lost from the body
Ans. (b)

2. An erythrocyte lives for approximately
(a) On week
(b) One month
(c) Four months
(d) One year
Ans. (c)

3. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)

4. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is known as
(a) Ureotelic
(b) Uricotelic
(c) Urochrome
(d) Uraemia
Ans. (d)

5. Which one of the following minerals helps in erythropoietin?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (b)

6. The separation of macromolecules from molecules and ions can be accomplished by
(a) Photolysis
(b) Cytolysis
(c) Hemolysis
(d) Dialysis
Ans. (d)

7. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state
Ans. (c)

8. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of amoebas and human macrophages, occurs when ectoplasm contracts to move endoplasm into a pseudopodium. Contraction of the ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(a) Sliding microtubules
(b) Contracting microfilaments
(c) Elongating cell walls
(d) Changes in turgor pressure
Ans. (d)

9. Axial skeleton in man is made up of
(a) 126 bones
(b) 100 bones
(c) 103 bones
(d) 80 bones
Ans. (b)

10. The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is that?
(a) To increase surface area
(b) They can be packed up like coins
(c) They can fit into capillaries
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

11. Skull of man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 22 bones
(c) 30 bones
(d) 24 bones
Ans. (d)

12. Normal hemoglobin content of an adult man is
(a) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(b) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(c) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood
(d) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood
Ans. (c)

13. The total number of bones in the body of man is
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 636
Ans. (b)

14. Which blood constituent makes up more of the volume of blood?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Blood proteins
(d) White blood cells
Ans. (b)

15. Cranium in man is made up of
(a) 10 bones
(b) 12 bones
(c) 16 bones
(d) 8 bones
Ans. (b)

16. Number of RBC in an adult man per rum3 of blood is
(a) 5,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 500,000
(d) 5,000,000
Ans. (d)

17. The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is referred to as
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b)

18. Foramen magnum is found on
(a) Lateral side of skull
(b) Neural canal
(c) Anterior side of skull
(d) Posterior side of skull
Ans. (d)

19. Number of RBC increases if one lives at higher altitude because
(a) There is less oxygen on mountains
(b) More heat is required in body for producing body warmth
(c) There are no germs in mountain air
(d) There is more oxygen on mountains
Ans. (a)

20. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel
(a) Same as that of whale
(b) More as that of horse
(c) less than that of rabbit
(d) more than of rabbit
Ans. (a)

21. The life span of human WBC is normally
(a) 12-13 days
(b) 80-90 days
(c) 100-120 days
(d) 20-30 days
Ans. (a)

22. Total number of bones present in forelimb of man is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 24
Ans. (c)

23. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Basophiles
Ans. (b)

24. Patella is a kind of
(a) Cartilage bone
(b) Membrane bone
(c) Cartilage
(d) Sesamoid bone
Ans. (d)

25. “Leukemia” a cancer is due to
(a) Excessive production of WBCs
(b) Excessive production of RBCs
(c) Excessive production of platelets
(d) All of theses
Ans. (a)

Biology MCQ quiz

Biology MCQ quiz
Biology Multiple Choice Quiz
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions


1. Lysosomes are generally found in
(a) Animal cells
(a) Plant cells
(c) Both animal and plant cells
(d) Bacterial cells
Ans. (a)

2. The filaments that specialize in moving organelles are
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Intermediate filaments
(c) Actin
(d) Microtubules
Ans. (d)

3. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) F. Sanger
Ans. (a)

4. The basis of grouping of living organisms into eukaryotes and prokaryotes is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

5. Functional activities of the cell are controlled by
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Nucleolus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (d)


6. Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by
(a) Protein rhodopsin
(b) Nuclear lamina
(c) Lipid bilayer of all membranes
(d) Protein nucleoplasmin
Ans. (b)

7. Chromosomes are
(a) Extranuclear with chromatin
(b) Intranuclear without chromatin
(c) Extranuclear without chromatin
(d) Intranuclear with chromatin
Ans. (d)

8. Region of chromosomes where force is exerted during separation of dividing chromosomes is
(a) Chromonema
(b) Centromere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Celomere
Ans. (b)

9. Chromosomes having equal arms are known as
(a) Telocentric chromosome
(b) Metacentric chromosome
(c) Concentric chromosome
(d) Acrocentric chromosome
Ans. (b)

10. A chromatid represents
(a) Complete chromosome
(b) One half of a chromosome
(c) Haploid number
(d) A genome
Ans. (b)

11. Average thickness of unit cell membrane is
(a) 5Å
(b) 25 Å
(c) 75 Å
(d) 250 Å
Ans. (c)

12. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
(a) Transporting substances across the membrane
(b) cell-to-cell recognition
(c) Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) Cell adhesions
Ans. (b)

13. Which one of the following represents the best stage in which to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Interphase
Ans. (b)

14. Who coined the term ‘meiosis’?
(a) F.F. Blackmann
(b) J.B. Farmer
(c) A. Flemming
(d) J.F. Enders
Ans. (b)

15. Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) S-phase
(b) M-phase
(c) G1 and G2 phase
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

16. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) Entire cycle
(b) S-phase
(c) G1 and S-phase
(d) G2 and S-phase
Ans. (b)


17. Which plant material is best suited for studying mitosis in classroom?
(a) Anthers
(b) Root tips
(c) Pieces of bark
(d) Shoot apex
Ans. (b)

18. Colchicines interferes in
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) DNA replication
(c) Organization and orientation of spindle elements
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)


19. The attachment of a chromosome to the spindle fiber is brought about by
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite region
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
20. Chromosomes can be counted at
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper

Plants Soil and Environmental science Sample test paper
Environmental Science - Sample Questions
Earth & Environmental Science - Online Multiple Choice Quiz
1. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all the above
Ans. (b)


2. In nitrogen cycle the bacteria, which change proteins to ammonia, are known as
(a) bacteria of decay
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) nitrate bacteria
Ans. (a)



3. To prevent soil erosion, a farmer plants a hedge across a field. This method works
because
(a) the hedge prevents the soil from direct impact of rain water
(b) the roots of plants prevent the soil erosion
(c) the hedge absorbs minerals from the soil, which makes it most compact
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)


4. Water logged soil is
(a) physically as well as physiologically dry
(b) physically wet but physiologically dry
(c) physically dry
(d) physically as well as physiologically wet
Ans. (b)

5. Which is the characteristic feature of a physiologically dry soil?
(a) There is plenty of water in the soil
(b) Light available to the plants is not sufficient
(c) Concentration of salts is very high in soil water
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Forests
(d) Wild life
Ans. (b)


7. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of earth
(a) is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
(b) helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c) hinder higher rate of photosynthesis
(d) has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years
Ans. (b)


8. Dudhawa National Park is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (a)


9. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(a) Madagascar
(b) Mauritius
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Ans. (a)

10. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in which place in India?
(a) Lailbagh, Baaga1ore
(b) Vedanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
(c) Ranganathathittis sanctuary, Karnataka
(d) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
Ans. (d)


11. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)


12: Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) O2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)


13. If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of the earth
would be
(a) higher than the present
(b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) less than the present
(d) the same
Ans. (c)


14. Deforestation has an alarming effect on
(a) increase in grazing area
(b) weed control
(c) soi1 erosion
(d) sunlight
Ans. (c)

15. In the recent years there has been an increasing incidence of floods in the plains of
Northern India because
(a) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
(b) the rate of silting of dams has gone up
(c) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment areas
(d) increased areas of land is being self cultivated
Ans. (c)

16. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)


17. BOD stands for
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demand
(c) growing algae in large tanks
(d) biotic community
Ans. (a)


18. Which of the following is main factor in water pollution?
(a) Pesticides
(b) Industrial waste
(c) detergent
(d) NH3
Ans. (c)



19. In a highly industrialised area, which of the following will be virtually absent?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Ferns
(d) Bryophytes
Ans. (b)

20. The assistance received from Dr. Norman Earnest Borlang, an eminent agronomist from America is worth mentioning in
(a) White revolution
(b) Blue revolution
(c) Green revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

Free Zoology quiz

Free Zoology quiz
zoology quiz questions and answers
Zoology Quiz Test Zoology Questions
1. Which of the following features do all gas exchange have in common?
(a) They are enclosed within ribs
(b) They are maintained at constant temperature
(c) Exchange surfaces are moist
(d) They are exposed to air
Ans. (c)

2. Vocal cords occur in
(a) pharynx
(b) Glottis
(c) Bronchial tube
(d) Larynx
Ans. (d)

3. In man, which of the following structures is analogous to the spiracles of cockroach?
(a) Alveoli
(b) Lungs
(c) Bronchioles
(d) Nostrils
Ans. (d)

4. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Ribs
(c) Cartilaginous discs
(d) Muscles
Ans. (c)

5. A child breathes nearly
(a) 13 times a minute
(b) 26 times a minute
(c) 52 times a minute
(d) 72 times a minute
Ans. (b)


6. When diaphragm of man is completely dome sha€l it shows
(a) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration
(b) Beginning of expiratio4nd end of inspiration
(c) Increased rate of breathing
(d) Decreased rate of breathing
Ans. (a)

7. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normLbreath is called
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory capacity
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Residual volume
Ans. (a)

8. Percentage of 02 present in inhaled air in man is about
(a) 21%
(b) 78%
(c) 1%
(d) 43%
Ans. (a)

9. Gas exchange in the gills of a fish is enhanced by having the blood flow in a direction opposite to the direction of water flow, a process known as
(a) Countercurrent exchange
(b) Ventilation
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Active respiration
Ans. (a)


10. Chloride shift is essential for transport of
(a) CO2 and O2
(b) N2
(c) CO2
(d) O2
Ans. (c)

11. Mendel conducted his hybridisation experiment with
(a) chick pea
(b) pigeon pea
(c) garden pea
(d) wild pea
Ans. (c)

12. MENDEL was lucky in the choice of the material of his experiments, among the following, which contributed, to his success?
(a) He observed distinct inherited traits
(b) He qualitatively analysed his date
(c) He liked pea plants
(d) He considered only one character at one time
Ans. (d)

13. The year 1990 AD is highly significant for genetics due to
(a) principle of linkage
(b) chromosome theory of heredity
(c) rediscovery of mendelism
(d) discovery of genes
Ans. (c)

14. The physical manifestation of an organism’s genes is its
(a) environment
(b) phenotype
(c) genetic code
(d) genotype
Ans. (b)

15. Alleles are
(a) homologous chromosome
(b) chromosome that have crossed over
(c) alternate forms of gene
(d) linked genes
Ans. (c)

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions

Botany Solved Multiple choice Questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Botany
Free Multiple Choice Botany For AIIMS PMT
1. True xerophytes have
(a) lower rate of transpiration than mesophytes
(b) transpiration rate equal to mesophytes
(c) transpiration rate higher than mesophytes
(d) no transpiration
Ans. (a)

2. Plants growing in extremely cold soils are
(a) halophytes
(b) psammophytes
(c) oxylophytes
(d) psychrophytes
Ans. (d)

3. Xerophytes have long roots
(a) due to light
(b) to draw water from deep water beds
(c) to give mechanical support
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

4. The orchid plants, which are found growing on the trees, are
(a) parasites
(b) epiphytes
(c) saprophytes
(d) lithophytes
Ans. (b)

5. In submerged hydrophytes functional stomata are found
(a) on lower surface of leaf
(b) on both the surface of leaf
(c) no where on the plant
(d) on upper surface of leaf
Ans. (c)

6. What is the relationship between water-fern(Azolla) and nitrogen-fixing
cyanobacteria(Anabaena) called?
(a) Symbiotic
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitic
(d) Epiphytic
Ans. (a)

7. When animals feed on other dead animals, which had died naturally or had been
killed by another animals, the relationship is termed as
(a) predation
(b) competition
(c) scavenging
(d) symbiosis
Ans. (c)

8. The first plants to reappear in a badly burned forest area will most probably be
(a) liverworts
(b) ferns
(c) grasses
(d) mosses
Ans. (b)

9. The transfer of energy from organism to organism in a natural community establishes
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
Ans. (a)

10. First link to any food chain is a green plant because
(a) fixed at one place
(b) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food
(c) they can eat every thing
(d) they respire
Ans. (b)

11. Which is a primary consumer?
(a) Scavenger
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Carnivore
(d) Herbivore
Ans. (d)

12. Trophic levels are formed by
(a) plants only
(b) animals only
(c) carnivores only
(d) organisms linked in food chain
Ans. (d)

13. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) detrivores
(d) scavengers
Ans. (a)
14. The following groups of organisms represent different trophic levels. Which out of
these four has the greatest biomass?
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(e) Autotrophs
(d) Decomposers
Ans. (c)

15. The food chain that starts from plants and goes from smaller to larger animals is
(a) predator food chain
(b) saprophytic food chain
(c) detritus food chain
(d) parasitic food chain
Ans. (a)

16. A crocodile had just eaten a lamb when a hawk saw the crocodile, attacked it and
consumed it.The hawk is in ecological terms
(a) a producer
(b) a primary consumer
(c) a secondary consumer
(d) tertiary consumer
Ans. (d)

17. Organisms of the same trophic level are
(a) deer and honey bee
(b) cheetah and wild bear
(c) snake and earthworm
(d) crow and cow
Ans. (a)


18. Driving force of ecosystem is
(a) carbohydrate in plants
(b) biomass
(c) solar energy
(d) producer
Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is upright in all the ecosystems?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of biomass
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)


20. In an aqueous environment microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as
(a) herbivores
(b) fauna and flora
(c) planktons
(d) symbionts
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of following word is related to Homo sapiens?
(a) Herbivore
(b) Carnivore
(c) Omnivore
(d) Autotroph
Ans. (c)

22. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(a) cycles of matter
(b) sedimentary cycles
(c) material cycling
(d) gaseous cycles
Ans. (a)


23. The leguminous plants are important in agriculture because
(a) they need very little water to grow
(b) they are disease resistant
(c) they help in nitrogen economy of the plants
(d) six crops of leguminous plants are harvested in a year
Ans. (c)

24. The denitrification means
(a) reduction of NO2 to ammonia by bacteria in the soil
(b) conversion of ammonia to amino acids
(c) conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
(d) oxidation of ammonia titrate
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) A1l of these
Ans. (d)