Biology questions for exams
Exam Questions Fully Solved - Biology
Biology Exams With Solutions
1. The main function of a plasma membrane is to
(a) prevent water from entering or leaving
(b) control what goes into and out of the cell
(c) act as a sieve, allowing only lipids to pass
(d) Move the cell from place to place
Ans. (b)
2. Who was the first to explain that cells divide and that all-new cells must come from preexisting cells?
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow
Ans. (d)
3. The first person to see a cell under the microscope was
(a) M. Schleiden
(b) T. Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (c)
4. Prokaryotic cell is one, which does not have
(a) Proper nucleus
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
(c) Proper nucleus and most of ce1organelles
(d) Cell wall
Ans. (c)
5. Which two organelles are thought to have originated from free-living prokaryotic cells?
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Chloroplast and nucleus
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(d) Lysosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (c)
6. The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as
(a) Middle lamella
(b) Plasmodesmata
(c) Cell membrane system
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. (b)
7. Ribosome was discovered by
(a) Porter
(b) Palade
(c) Muller
(d) Ochoa
Ans. (b)
8. Which one of the following does not have DNA?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)
9. The smallest organelles in a cell are
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Peroxysomes
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (d)
10. Endoplasmic reticulum was discovered by
(a) Porter and Kallmann
(b) Altmann
(c) Robertson
(d) Hofmeister
Ans. (a)
11. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesized
(a) in the mitochondria
(b) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) on free ribosomes
Ans. (b)
12. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(a) Liver cells
(b) Higher plants
(c) Blue green algae
(d) Yeast
Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus contains a collection of flattened membrane bounded cisternae?
(a) Nucleolus
(b) Centriole
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (c)
14. What “buds off’ of the Golgi complex?
(a) Nuclei
(b) Cytoskeleton
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Vesicles
Ans. (d)
15. Major function of Golgi body is
(a) Secretion
(b) Regulation of cell temperature
(c) Active transport
(d) Transportation
Ans. (a)
16. Mitochondria were first observed by
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Altmann
(c) Robert Hooker
(d) T. Svedberg
Ans. (b)
17. The inner membrane of mitochondrion is usually highly convoluted forming a series of enfolding known as
(a) Thylakoids
(b) Grana
(c) Cristae
(d) Lamellae
Ans. (c)
18. The enzymes for Krebs cycle in mitochondria are located in
(a) In perimitochondrial space
(b) On inner membrane
(c) In mitochondrial matrix
(d) On the outer membrane
Ans. (c)
19. Cell organelle, which has electron transport system, is
(a) Centriole
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Nucleolus
Ans. (c)
20. Mitochondria and chloroplast are believed to be bacterial endosymbionts of cells because
(a) Their membranes resemble those of bacteria
(b) They do not arise do novo
(c) They have their own nucleic acids
(d) They have all the above attributes
Ans. (d)
21. Autonomic genome system is present in
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(d) Golgi body and mitochondria
Ans. (b)
22. Besides leucoplast, starch grain can develop in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chromoplast
Ans. (b)
23. Green pigments capable of capturing the energy of sunlight are located within the
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Chloroplasts
(c) Cell wall
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (b)
24. The plastids that give fruits and flowers their orange and yellow colours are the
(a) Chromoplast
(b) Protoplasts
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Leucoplasts
Ans. (a)
25. Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bags” because of
(a) Catalytic activity
(b) Hydrolytic activity
(c) Parasitic activity
(d) Saprophytic activity
Ans. (b)
Tuesday, June 14, 2011
Friday, June 3, 2011
PMT Sample questions
PMT Sample questions
PMT Sample Paper:Botany
Free Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Green-house gases include:
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 and NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 and N2
Ans. (a)
2. Best source of renewable energy is:
(a) cattle
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) trees
Ans.(d)
3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during:
(a) G1-phase
(b) G2-phase
d) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)
4. Multicellular fragment of a blue-green alga capable of growth into new plant is:
(a) hormocyst
(b) trichome
(c) trichogyne
(d) hormogonium
Ans. (d)
5. Karyokinesis differs from cytokinesis as it involves division of:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cell
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium?
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) TMV
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Yeast
Ans. (b)
7. Common features between lenticels and hydathodes are:
(a) allow exchange of gases
(b) always remain closed
(c) there is no regulation of their opening and closing
(d) they occur on the same organ of the plant
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaunia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
Ans.(b)
9. The waxy substance associated with the walls of cork or the wall of cork cells are mostly impregnated with:
(a) cutin
(b) suberin
(c) lignin
(d) hemicellulose
Ans. (b)
10. Coenocytic mycelium occurs in:
(a) deuteromycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) phycomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
Ans. (c)
11. Lignin occurs in the cell wall of:
(a) phloem
(b) cork
(c) woody tissue/xylem cells
(d) parenchyma/epidermal cells
Ans. (c)
12. External water is not required for fertilization in:
(a) fern/Selaginella
(b) moss/Riccia
(c) Ulothrix
(d) gymnosperms/maize
Ans. (d)
13. Night jasmine, the shrub that emits fragrance during night is:
(a) Cestrum nocturnum
(b) Solanum surattense
(C) Brunfelsia hopaena
(d) Datura strainonium
Ans. (a)
14. Which one has maximum biomass?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b) Lake ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (d)
15. Pulses are obtained from:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Solaneceae
Ans. (a)
16. The wing of Pinus seed is derived from:
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegman
(c) surface of ovuliferous scales
(d) all of the above
Ans.(c)
17. Enzyme used in joining DNA fragments is:
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (a)
18. Amount of water a soil can hold against pull of gravity is called:
(a) field capacity
(b) gravitational water
(c) storage water
(d) hygroscopic water
Ans.(a)
19. The leaves develop from:
(a) nodes
(b) intemodes
(c) epidermis
(d) endodermis
Ans. (a)
20. Ochreate stipules occur in the family:
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Compositae
(d) Polygonaceae
Ans. (d)
21. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by:
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Strasburger
Ans.(b)
22. Hexaploid or modem wheat developed through:
(a) hybridomas
(b) chromosome doubling
(c) hybridization
(d) hybridization and chromosome doubling
Ans.(d)
23. Pneumatophores are useful in:
(a) respiration
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) protein synthesis
Ans. (a)
24. Lever mechanism or turn-pipe mechanism of pollination is found in:
(a) Antirrhinum
(b) Ficus
(c) Wheat
(d) Salvia
Ans.(d)
25. Mendel did not propose:
(a) dominence
(b) incomplete dominence
(c) segregation
(d) independent assortment
Ans.(b)
PMT Sample Paper:Botany
Free Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Green-house gases include:
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 and NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 and N2
Ans. (a)
2. Best source of renewable energy is:
(a) cattle
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) trees
Ans.(d)
3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during:
(a) G1-phase
(b) G2-phase
d) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)
4. Multicellular fragment of a blue-green alga capable of growth into new plant is:
(a) hormocyst
(b) trichome
(c) trichogyne
(d) hormogonium
Ans. (d)
5. Karyokinesis differs from cytokinesis as it involves division of:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cell
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium?
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) TMV
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Yeast
Ans. (b)
7. Common features between lenticels and hydathodes are:
(a) allow exchange of gases
(b) always remain closed
(c) there is no regulation of their opening and closing
(d) they occur on the same organ of the plant
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaunia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
Ans.(b)
9. The waxy substance associated with the walls of cork or the wall of cork cells are mostly impregnated with:
(a) cutin
(b) suberin
(c) lignin
(d) hemicellulose
Ans. (b)
10. Coenocytic mycelium occurs in:
(a) deuteromycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) phycomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
Ans. (c)
11. Lignin occurs in the cell wall of:
(a) phloem
(b) cork
(c) woody tissue/xylem cells
(d) parenchyma/epidermal cells
Ans. (c)
12. External water is not required for fertilization in:
(a) fern/Selaginella
(b) moss/Riccia
(c) Ulothrix
(d) gymnosperms/maize
Ans. (d)
13. Night jasmine, the shrub that emits fragrance during night is:
(a) Cestrum nocturnum
(b) Solanum surattense
(C) Brunfelsia hopaena
(d) Datura strainonium
Ans. (a)
14. Which one has maximum biomass?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b) Lake ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (d)
15. Pulses are obtained from:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Solaneceae
Ans. (a)
16. The wing of Pinus seed is derived from:
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegman
(c) surface of ovuliferous scales
(d) all of the above
Ans.(c)
17. Enzyme used in joining DNA fragments is:
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans. (a)
18. Amount of water a soil can hold against pull of gravity is called:
(a) field capacity
(b) gravitational water
(c) storage water
(d) hygroscopic water
Ans.(a)
19. The leaves develop from:
(a) nodes
(b) intemodes
(c) epidermis
(d) endodermis
Ans. (a)
20. Ochreate stipules occur in the family:
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Compositae
(d) Polygonaceae
Ans. (d)
21. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by:
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Strasburger
Ans.(b)
22. Hexaploid or modem wheat developed through:
(a) hybridomas
(b) chromosome doubling
(c) hybridization
(d) hybridization and chromosome doubling
Ans.(d)
23. Pneumatophores are useful in:
(a) respiration
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) protein synthesis
Ans. (a)
24. Lever mechanism or turn-pipe mechanism of pollination is found in:
(a) Antirrhinum
(b) Ficus
(c) Wheat
(d) Salvia
Ans.(d)
25. Mendel did not propose:
(a) dominence
(b) incomplete dominence
(c) segregation
(d) independent assortment
Ans.(b)
Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers
Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers
Solved objective questions botany
multiple choice questions answers for botany for pre medical Exams
1. Syconus fruit develops from:
(a) catkin
(b) verticillaster
(c) hypanthodium
(d) cyathium
Ans. (c)
2. The minimum time interval required between application of stimulus and production of response is
(a) presentation time
(b) relaxation time
(c) conversion time
(d) reaction time
Ans. (d)
3. Father of Indian green revolution is:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Ans. (c)
4. Chromosome end is called
(a) telomere
(b) centromere
(c) satellite
(d) maramere
Ans. (a)
5. A medicinal plant is:
(a) Cryptostegia grandiflora
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Rauwolffia serpentina
(d) Brassica oleracea
Ans. (c)
6. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:
(a) ribosomes and r-RNA
(b) only r-RNA
(c) peroxisomes
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of m-RNA
Ans. (d)
7. Number of ATP molecules produced by each NADPH is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
8. The term protoplasm was coined by:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Dujardin
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Purkinje
Ans. (d)
9. Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) cytochrome
(d) dehydrogenase
Ans. (b)
10. An algae rich in proteins is:
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(C) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Ans. (a)
11. The loading of phloem during translocation means:
(a) elongation of phloem cells
(b) separation of phloem parenchyma
(c) strengthening of phloem fibers
(d) pouring of sugars into phloem
Ans. (d)
12. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in:
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
Ans. (c)
13. In C3 plants first stable product photosynthesis during dark reaction is:
(a) PGA
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid
Ans. (a)
14. Plant hormone causing abscission of leaves, senescence, bud dormancy and inhibition of cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA
Ans. (d)
15. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to:
(a) high sunlight intensity
(b) low sunlight intensity
(c) absorption of yellow pigment from the soil
(d) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
Ans. (d)
16. Vascular cryptogams are:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Spermatophytes
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
17. Gasohol is:
(a) 20 % ethanol + 80 % petrol
(b) 20 % ethanol + 70% petrol + 10% kerosene
(c) 10% ethanol + 80% petrol+ 10% kerosene
(d) 10 % ethanol + 90 % petrol
Ans. (a)
18. Phytochrome is involved in:
(a) phototropism
(b) photorespiration
(c) photoperiodism
(d) geotropism
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following essential elements can land plants normally obtain directly from air?
(a) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(d) Phosphorus
Ans. (b)
20. Main function of lenticel is:
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) bleeding
(d) gaseous exchange
Ans. (d)
21. In a-helix secondary structure, hydrogen bonds lie between amide group of one amino acid and carbonyl group of:
(a) 2nd amino acid
(b) 3rd amino acid
(c) fourth amino acid
(d) fifth amino acid
Ans. (c)
22. Pomato is somatic hybrid between:
(a) poppy and potato
(b) potato and tomato
(c) poppy and tamarind
(d) poppy and tomato
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) Potometers
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer/barometer
Ans. (b)
24. The protein part of enzyme is:
(a) prosthatic group
(b) apoenzyme
(c) holoenzyme
(d) zymogen
Ans. (b)
25. Pesticides comprise
(a) herbicides and insecticides
(b) insecticides
(c) insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
(d) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
Ans. (d)
Solved objective questions botany
multiple choice questions answers for botany for pre medical Exams
1. Syconus fruit develops from:
(a) catkin
(b) verticillaster
(c) hypanthodium
(d) cyathium
Ans. (c)
2. The minimum time interval required between application of stimulus and production of response is
(a) presentation time
(b) relaxation time
(c) conversion time
(d) reaction time
Ans. (d)
3. Father of Indian green revolution is:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Ans. (c)
4. Chromosome end is called
(a) telomere
(b) centromere
(c) satellite
(d) maramere
Ans. (a)
5. A medicinal plant is:
(a) Cryptostegia grandiflora
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Rauwolffia serpentina
(d) Brassica oleracea
Ans. (c)
6. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:
(a) ribosomes and r-RNA
(b) only r-RNA
(c) peroxisomes
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of m-RNA
Ans. (d)
7. Number of ATP molecules produced by each NADPH is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
8. The term protoplasm was coined by:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Dujardin
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Purkinje
Ans. (d)
9. Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) cytochrome
(d) dehydrogenase
Ans. (b)
10. An algae rich in proteins is:
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(C) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Ans. (a)
11. The loading of phloem during translocation means:
(a) elongation of phloem cells
(b) separation of phloem parenchyma
(c) strengthening of phloem fibers
(d) pouring of sugars into phloem
Ans. (d)
12. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in:
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
Ans. (c)
13. In C3 plants first stable product photosynthesis during dark reaction is:
(a) PGA
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid
Ans. (a)
14. Plant hormone causing abscission of leaves, senescence, bud dormancy and inhibition of cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA
Ans. (d)
15. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to:
(a) high sunlight intensity
(b) low sunlight intensity
(c) absorption of yellow pigment from the soil
(d) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
Ans. (d)
16. Vascular cryptogams are:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Spermatophytes
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
17. Gasohol is:
(a) 20 % ethanol + 80 % petrol
(b) 20 % ethanol + 70% petrol + 10% kerosene
(c) 10% ethanol + 80% petrol+ 10% kerosene
(d) 10 % ethanol + 90 % petrol
Ans. (a)
18. Phytochrome is involved in:
(a) phototropism
(b) photorespiration
(c) photoperiodism
(d) geotropism
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following essential elements can land plants normally obtain directly from air?
(a) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(d) Phosphorus
Ans. (b)
20. Main function of lenticel is:
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) bleeding
(d) gaseous exchange
Ans. (d)
21. In a-helix secondary structure, hydrogen bonds lie between amide group of one amino acid and carbonyl group of:
(a) 2nd amino acid
(b) 3rd amino acid
(c) fourth amino acid
(d) fifth amino acid
Ans. (c)
22. Pomato is somatic hybrid between:
(a) poppy and potato
(b) potato and tomato
(c) poppy and tamarind
(d) poppy and tomato
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) Potometers
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer/barometer
Ans. (b)
24. The protein part of enzyme is:
(a) prosthatic group
(b) apoenzyme
(c) holoenzyme
(d) zymogen
Ans. (b)
25. Pesticides comprise
(a) herbicides and insecticides
(b) insecticides
(c) insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
(d) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
Ans. (d)
Zoology objective practice test
Zoology objective practice test
Zoology Objective Test Online Practice Test
Free Online Test Objective Zoology Quiz
1. Hopanoids are present in membrane of:
(a) all eukaryotes
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)
2. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over in:
(a) nerve fibre
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) skeleton muscle fibre
(d) heart
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following statement is right?
(a) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> pechytene —> zygotene —>diplotene —> diakinesis
(b) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> diplotene —> pechytene —> diakinesis
(c) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> pechytene —> diplotene —> diakinesis
(d) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> diplotene —>zygotene —> pachytene —>diakinesis
Ans. (c)
4. Setae or chaetae are absent on:
(a) peristomium
(b) pygidium
(c) clitellum
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
5. —10 sequence on promoter has 6 nucleotides which have a specific sequence. Which is?
(a) TATATA
(b) TAATAT
(c) TATAAT
(d) TATTAT
Ans. (c)
6. Na+ - K+ ATPase protein required how much ATP molecules for import of two K within the cell?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
7. A protein, which is analogous to eukaryotic histones, present in some species of bacteria:
(a) UH protein
(b) H protein
(c) U protein
(d) RU protein
Ans. (d)
8. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called as
(a) synapse
(b) terminalisation
(c) synopsis
(d) crossing over
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following disease was the first human disease found to be caused by a virus:
(a) smallpox
(b) colorado tick fever
(c) yellow fever
(d) rubella
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smoth muscle
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
11. Who proposed the name m-RNA for the first time?
(a) Lerman
(b) Jacob and Monod
(c) Kelley
(d) Spirin
Ans. (b)
12. ADH and oxytocin are produced by:
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) neurosecretory cell bodies
Ans. (d)
13. Which type of inversion include centromere portion of a chromosome?
(a) Paracentric
(b) Pericentric
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
14. The temperature ranges at which enzymes are maximum functional:
(a) 40— 45°C
(b) 15— 20°C
(c) 30— 45°C
(d) 20— 30°C
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Striated muscle
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Stratified epithelium
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres
Ans. (b)
16. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as:
(a) chlorination
(b) Hamburger phenomenon
(c) bicarbonate shift
(d) CO2 transport
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis ?
(a) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size
(b) It does not help in the maintenance of the equilibrium in the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell
(c) The gonads and sex cells depend on the mitosis for the increase in their number
(d) The old decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by the help of mitosis
Ans. (b)
18. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro-organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as:
(a) vaccine
(b) antibiotic
(c) sera
(d) antitoxins
Ans. (a)
19. In man sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly:
(a) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(b) 2 to 4 feet/minute
(c) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(d) 2 to 4 cm/minute
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following theory explain structure of protoplasm?
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Colloidal theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Viscosity theory
Ans. (b)
21. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that:
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly tha3l passive
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport is confined to anions and cations
(d) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
Ans. (d)
¬¬¬¬22. Ageing of an animal .body is associated with deterioration in its
(a) connective tissue
(b) glandular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) both (b) and (a)
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following factor controls the human population density?
(a) Industry
(b) Climate
(c) Communication
(d) Natural resources
Ans. (b)
24. Christmas disease is another name for:
(a) haemophilia-B
(b) hepatitis-B
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) sleeping sickness
Ans. (a)
25. Taenia solium derives it’s energy from the breakdown of:
(a) nucleic acids
(b) amino acids
(c) glycogen
(d) glycerol
Ans. (c)
Zoology Objective Test Online Practice Test
Free Online Test Objective Zoology Quiz
1. Hopanoids are present in membrane of:
(a) all eukaryotes
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)
2. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over in:
(a) nerve fibre
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) skeleton muscle fibre
(d) heart
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following statement is right?
(a) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> pechytene —> zygotene —>diplotene —> diakinesis
(b) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> diplotene —> pechytene —> diakinesis
(c) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> pechytene —> diplotene —> diakinesis
(d) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> diplotene —>zygotene —> pachytene —>diakinesis
Ans. (c)
4. Setae or chaetae are absent on:
(a) peristomium
(b) pygidium
(c) clitellum
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
5. —10 sequence on promoter has 6 nucleotides which have a specific sequence. Which is?
(a) TATATA
(b) TAATAT
(c) TATAAT
(d) TATTAT
Ans. (c)
6. Na+ - K+ ATPase protein required how much ATP molecules for import of two K within the cell?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
7. A protein, which is analogous to eukaryotic histones, present in some species of bacteria:
(a) UH protein
(b) H protein
(c) U protein
(d) RU protein
Ans. (d)
8. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called as
(a) synapse
(b) terminalisation
(c) synopsis
(d) crossing over
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following disease was the first human disease found to be caused by a virus:
(a) smallpox
(b) colorado tick fever
(c) yellow fever
(d) rubella
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smoth muscle
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
11. Who proposed the name m-RNA for the first time?
(a) Lerman
(b) Jacob and Monod
(c) Kelley
(d) Spirin
Ans. (b)
12. ADH and oxytocin are produced by:
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) neurosecretory cell bodies
Ans. (d)
13. Which type of inversion include centromere portion of a chromosome?
(a) Paracentric
(b) Pericentric
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
14. The temperature ranges at which enzymes are maximum functional:
(a) 40— 45°C
(b) 15— 20°C
(c) 30— 45°C
(d) 20— 30°C
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Striated muscle
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Stratified epithelium
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres
Ans. (b)
16. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as:
(a) chlorination
(b) Hamburger phenomenon
(c) bicarbonate shift
(d) CO2 transport
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis ?
(a) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size
(b) It does not help in the maintenance of the equilibrium in the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell
(c) The gonads and sex cells depend on the mitosis for the increase in their number
(d) The old decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by the help of mitosis
Ans. (b)
18. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro-organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as:
(a) vaccine
(b) antibiotic
(c) sera
(d) antitoxins
Ans. (a)
19. In man sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly:
(a) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(b) 2 to 4 feet/minute
(c) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(d) 2 to 4 cm/minute
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following theory explain structure of protoplasm?
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Colloidal theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Viscosity theory
Ans. (b)
21. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that:
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly tha3l passive
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport is confined to anions and cations
(d) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
Ans. (d)
¬¬¬¬22. Ageing of an animal .body is associated with deterioration in its
(a) connective tissue
(b) glandular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) both (b) and (a)
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following factor controls the human population density?
(a) Industry
(b) Climate
(c) Communication
(d) Natural resources
Ans. (b)
24. Christmas disease is another name for:
(a) haemophilia-B
(b) hepatitis-B
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) sleeping sickness
Ans. (a)
25. Taenia solium derives it’s energy from the breakdown of:
(a) nucleic acids
(b) amino acids
(c) glycogen
(d) glycerol
Ans. (c)
Wednesday, June 1, 2011
Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs
Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs
BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR PGT TGT
tgt sample paper :Biology
1. Cell theory was propounded by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel and Morgan
(d) Wallace and Darwin
Ans. (a)
2. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book
(a) Origin of Species
(b) Plant Kingdom
(c) Genra Plantarum
(d) Micrographia
Ans. (d)
3. The term ‘protoplasm’ was given by
(a) Purkinje
(b) Dujardin
(c) Brown
(d) Fischer
Ans. (a)
4. Who first coined the word “cell”?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hooke
(c) Schwann
(d) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (b)
5. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(a) Centrosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)
6. Membranes occur in
(a) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm, nuclei and starch grains
(c) Chromosomes, chloroplasts and starch grains
(d) Nuclei, chromosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (a)
7. Chemical nature of ribosomes is
(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Proteins and lipids
(c) Glucose and sucrose
(d) Proteins and RNA
Ans. (d)
8. All are membrane bounded cell organelles except
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)
9. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout the cytoplasm in a cell is
(a) golgi body
(b) mitochondria
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (c)
10. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells, which synthesise
(a) Steroids and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)
11. If cells are broken up and sedimented by centrifugation, the new structure formed in one of the fractions is
(a) Lysosome
(b) Microsome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Ans. (b)
12. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) in trapping light quanta and transforming them into chemical energy
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids and glycoproteins
(d) As energy transferring organelles
Ans. (c)
13. Besides giving out secretory vesicles the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
(a) Lysosome
(b) Plastids
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Cell plates after cell division in plants
Ans. (a)
14. Dictyosomes are
(a) Place of flagellar organelle
(b) Respiratory particle
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Class of ribosomes
Ans. (c)
15. Cellulose and hemicellulose are the constituents of cell wall are synthesized by
(a) Microbodies
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus
Ans. (d)
16. Which organelle changes the chemical energy into utilizable energy?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Microsome
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is NOT a non- protoplasmic cell inclusion?
(a) Cystolith
(b) Starch grain
(c) Raphide
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (d)
18. In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme and cytochrome oxidase is located?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Perimitochondrial space
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Ans. (a)
19. Mitochondria are found
(a) In all cells
(b) Only in plant cells
(c) Only in animal cells
(d) In all eukaryotic cells
Ans. (d)
20. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
(b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplast as well as mitochondria
Ans. (a)
21. If the leaf tissues are carefully fractionated, what part should be alive?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Cell wall
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans. (d)
22. The grana and stroma lamellae are the parts of
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (d)
23. When green tomatoes turn red then
(a) New chloroplast are made
(b) Chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is credited for discovering lysosomes?
(a) M. Calvin
(b) A. Claude
(c) Christian de Duve
(d) L.C. Pauling
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following organelles are the cells ‘garbage disposal system’?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Phagosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (d)
BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR PGT TGT
tgt sample paper :Biology
1. Cell theory was propounded by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel and Morgan
(d) Wallace and Darwin
Ans. (a)
2. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book
(a) Origin of Species
(b) Plant Kingdom
(c) Genra Plantarum
(d) Micrographia
Ans. (d)
3. The term ‘protoplasm’ was given by
(a) Purkinje
(b) Dujardin
(c) Brown
(d) Fischer
Ans. (a)
4. Who first coined the word “cell”?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hooke
(c) Schwann
(d) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (b)
5. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(a) Centrosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)
6. Membranes occur in
(a) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm, nuclei and starch grains
(c) Chromosomes, chloroplasts and starch grains
(d) Nuclei, chromosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (a)
7. Chemical nature of ribosomes is
(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Proteins and lipids
(c) Glucose and sucrose
(d) Proteins and RNA
Ans. (d)
8. All are membrane bounded cell organelles except
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)
9. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout the cytoplasm in a cell is
(a) golgi body
(b) mitochondria
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (c)
10. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells, which synthesise
(a) Steroids and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)
11. If cells are broken up and sedimented by centrifugation, the new structure formed in one of the fractions is
(a) Lysosome
(b) Microsome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Ans. (b)
12. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) in trapping light quanta and transforming them into chemical energy
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids and glycoproteins
(d) As energy transferring organelles
Ans. (c)
13. Besides giving out secretory vesicles the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
(a) Lysosome
(b) Plastids
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Cell plates after cell division in plants
Ans. (a)
14. Dictyosomes are
(a) Place of flagellar organelle
(b) Respiratory particle
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Class of ribosomes
Ans. (c)
15. Cellulose and hemicellulose are the constituents of cell wall are synthesized by
(a) Microbodies
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus
Ans. (d)
16. Which organelle changes the chemical energy into utilizable energy?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Microsome
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is NOT a non- protoplasmic cell inclusion?
(a) Cystolith
(b) Starch grain
(c) Raphide
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (d)
18. In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme and cytochrome oxidase is located?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Perimitochondrial space
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Ans. (a)
19. Mitochondria are found
(a) In all cells
(b) Only in plant cells
(c) Only in animal cells
(d) In all eukaryotic cells
Ans. (d)
20. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
(b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplast as well as mitochondria
Ans. (a)
21. If the leaf tissues are carefully fractionated, what part should be alive?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Cell wall
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans. (d)
22. The grana and stroma lamellae are the parts of
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (d)
23. When green tomatoes turn red then
(a) New chloroplast are made
(b) Chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is credited for discovering lysosomes?
(a) M. Calvin
(b) A. Claude
(c) Christian de Duve
(d) L.C. Pauling
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following organelles are the cells ‘garbage disposal system’?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Phagosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (d)
Friday, May 27, 2011
zoology MCQ for Exams
zoology MCQ for Exams
Competitive exam question in Zoology MCQ questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
1. CO2 and 02 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) photorespiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) leaf anatomy
Ans. (b)
2. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because
(a) amount of sugar increases in them
(b) amount of organic acids decreases in them
(c) chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(d) of ageing
Ans. (c)
3. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) both from water and carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen in air
Ans. (b)
4. A specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to
(a) activate chlorophyll
(b) split water
(c) synthesis glucose
(d) reduce CO2
Ans. (a)
5. Who received Noble Prize for working out the early carbon pathway of
photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin
(b) Krebs
(c) Khorana
(d) Watson
Ans. (a)
6. It the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes double
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Ans. (c)
7. Digestion is
(a) conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(b) conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(c) conversion of food into protoplasm
(d) conversion of non-diffusible food particles into diffusible food
Ans. (d)
8. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function then these are called
(a) acrodont
(b) pleurodont
(c) homodont
(d) heterodont
Ans. (d)
9. The hardest part of a tooth is the
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp
(d) dental tubules
Ans. (b)
10. A bolus is
(a) a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva
(b) the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion in the stomach
(c) the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine
(d) indigestible materials that helps in movement and absorption
Ans. (a)
11. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of
(a) pepsin
(b) rennin
(c) HC1
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
12. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for pepsin, are called
(a) holoenzymes
(b) actinases
(c) zymogens
(d) mucopolysaccharides
Ans. (c)
13. Gasthc digestion takes place efficiently in
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) highly alkaline medium
Ans. (a)
14. Where is bile produced?
(a) In gall bladder
(b) In blood
(c) In liver
(d) In spleen
Ans. (c)
15. Pancreas has
(a) only endocrine cells
(b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(e) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine
(d) only exocrine cells
Ans. (c)
16. The specific function of liver is
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c) histolysis
(d) glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
Ans. (d)
17. Largest gland in human body is
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) pituitary
(d) thyroid
Ans. (a)
18. The tissue respiration refers to
(a) Inspiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Expiration
Ans. (c)
19. The gas-exchange surfaces of larger aquatic animals are
(a) Tracheae
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Gill
(d) Book lungs
Ans. (c)
20. During hibernation, the frog respires by
(a) Lungs only
(b) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(c) Both skin and lungs
(d) Skin only
Ans. (d)
21. The covering of lungs is called
(a) Pericardium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) perichondrium
(d) Peritoneum
Ans. (b)
22. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to
(a) Additional need of 02 for germs
(b) Mental worry of the patient
(c) High temperature of body ‘
(d) Loss of appetite
Ans. (c)
23. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inspiration, is called as
(a) Tidal air volume
(b) Vital lung capacity
(c) Complementally air volume
(d) Total lung capacity
Ans. (b)
24. Amount of 02 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
(a) 40m1
(b) 10ml
(c) 20ml
(d) 30 ml
Ans. (c)
25. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(a) Increase
(c) Affected
(b) Decrease
(d) Stop
Ans. (a)
Competitive exam question in Zoology MCQ questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
1. CO2 and 02 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) photorespiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) leaf anatomy
Ans. (b)
2. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because
(a) amount of sugar increases in them
(b) amount of organic acids decreases in them
(c) chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(d) of ageing
Ans. (c)
3. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) both from water and carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen in air
Ans. (b)
4. A specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to
(a) activate chlorophyll
(b) split water
(c) synthesis glucose
(d) reduce CO2
Ans. (a)
5. Who received Noble Prize for working out the early carbon pathway of
photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin
(b) Krebs
(c) Khorana
(d) Watson
Ans. (a)
6. It the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes double
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Ans. (c)
7. Digestion is
(a) conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(b) conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(c) conversion of food into protoplasm
(d) conversion of non-diffusible food particles into diffusible food
Ans. (d)
8. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function then these are called
(a) acrodont
(b) pleurodont
(c) homodont
(d) heterodont
Ans. (d)
9. The hardest part of a tooth is the
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp
(d) dental tubules
Ans. (b)
10. A bolus is
(a) a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva
(b) the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion in the stomach
(c) the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine
(d) indigestible materials that helps in movement and absorption
Ans. (a)
11. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of
(a) pepsin
(b) rennin
(c) HC1
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
12. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for pepsin, are called
(a) holoenzymes
(b) actinases
(c) zymogens
(d) mucopolysaccharides
Ans. (c)
13. Gasthc digestion takes place efficiently in
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) highly alkaline medium
Ans. (a)
14. Where is bile produced?
(a) In gall bladder
(b) In blood
(c) In liver
(d) In spleen
Ans. (c)
15. Pancreas has
(a) only endocrine cells
(b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(e) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine
(d) only exocrine cells
Ans. (c)
16. The specific function of liver is
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c) histolysis
(d) glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
Ans. (d)
17. Largest gland in human body is
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) pituitary
(d) thyroid
Ans. (a)
18. The tissue respiration refers to
(a) Inspiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Expiration
Ans. (c)
19. The gas-exchange surfaces of larger aquatic animals are
(a) Tracheae
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Gill
(d) Book lungs
Ans. (c)
20. During hibernation, the frog respires by
(a) Lungs only
(b) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(c) Both skin and lungs
(d) Skin only
Ans. (d)
21. The covering of lungs is called
(a) Pericardium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) perichondrium
(d) Peritoneum
Ans. (b)
22. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to
(a) Additional need of 02 for germs
(b) Mental worry of the patient
(c) High temperature of body ‘
(d) Loss of appetite
Ans. (c)
23. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inspiration, is called as
(a) Tidal air volume
(b) Vital lung capacity
(c) Complementally air volume
(d) Total lung capacity
Ans. (b)
24. Amount of 02 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
(a) 40m1
(b) 10ml
(c) 20ml
(d) 30 ml
Ans. (c)
25. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(a) Increase
(c) Affected
(b) Decrease
(d) Stop
Ans. (a)
Friday, May 13, 2011
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams
Zoology Quiz MCQ Objective type Assertion reason for UPSC
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The synthesis (anabolism) and degradation (catabolism) of protoplasm deals largely with protein metabolism.
Reason (R): Proteins generally form the major constituent of living matter.
Ans. (a)
2. Assertion (A): In starvation and diabetes, the concentration of Free Fatty Acids (FFA) in the blood increases.
Reason (R): The fatty acids circulate in blood in combination with plasma albumin.
Ans. (d)
3. Assertion (A): In spite of sufficient insulin being secreted by the islets of Langerhans, diabetes mellitus may strike an individual.
Reason (R): The number of insulin receptors on the target cells decreases due to a negative feed back mechanism.
Ans. (c)
4. Assertion (A): In metamorphosis tadpole of frog, the tail material is gradually accumulated in the body region and thus helps in disappearance of the tail.
Reason (R): Lysosomes become highly active in the tail region of tadpole.
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A): Monocystis and Plasmodium are included in the class Sporozoa.
Reason (R): Both these genera are internal parasites.
Ans. (b)
6. Assertion (A): Blood of Pheretima is red.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin occurs in the blood corpuscles.
Ans. (c)
7. Assertion (A): Feathers of Columba are water proof.
Reason (R): They are lubricated by secretion of the buccal gland.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Frog has large optic lobes whereas their counterpart in rabbit is much smaller.
Reason (R): In rabbit, the function of optic lobes is carried out by the cerebrum.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Calciferol is antagonistic to calcitonin.
Reason (R): Calciferol is synergistic to parathormone.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): The immediate administration of nitrite is a highly effective treatment for cyanide poisoning.
Reason (R): Nitrite converts ferrohaemoglobin to ferrihaemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihaemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxide for cyanide.
Ans. (a)
11. Assertion (A): On the yearly basis, the net community production in a mature rain-forest tends to be very low or none.
Reason (R): In steady state communities the gross primary production tends to be totally dissipated by the combined autotrophic and heterotrophic respirations.
Ans. (d)
12. Assertion (A): Ethylene oxide has been used as an insecticide.
Reason (R): Ethylene oxide is an anti-cholinesterase.
Ans. (d)
13. Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease.
Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-l-phosphate uridyl 1-transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): The crop milk is produced by both male and female Columba livia.
Reason (R): The males of his species have special milk producing glands.
Ans.(c)
15. Assertion (A): Adults are globular in Asteroidea and Echinoidea but cylindrical in Holothuroidea.
Reason (R): Relative development of ambs and interambs determines the shape of the adult body in echinoderms.
Ans. (d)
16. Assertion (A): Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia and Adamsia belong to Ctenophora.
Reason (R): They exhibit radial symmetry are diploblastic and have nematocyst.
Ans. No option is correct
17. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain the protein synthesis stops.
Reason (R): The termination codon reacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF-terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans. (a)
18. Assertion (A): In respiratory acidosis there is an elevation of arterial CO2 and H.
Reason (R): In hypoventilation CO2 is not eliminated as fast as it is produced.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In their role of constricting the arterioles, the effect of vasopressin lasts much longer as compared to the effect adrenaline.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is an amine whereas adrenaline is a polypeptide.
Ans. (c)
20. Assertion (A): Approximately 90% of eukaryotic DNA is not transcribed and translated and lies apparently functionless and dormant.
Reason (R): Natural selection operated to weed out apparently unnecessary DNA.
Ans. (c)
21. Assertion (A): Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R): DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning.
Ans. (c)
22. Assertion (A): A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual1
Reason (R): Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.
Ans.(a)
23. Assertion (A): Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.
Reason (R): It is temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.
Ans. (d)
24. Assertion (A): Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.
Reason (R): Any bacterium can carry expression vector.
Ans.(c)
25. Assertion (A): During protein synthesis, peptide bond formation is a dehydration reaction.
Reason (R): Peptide bond formation is done by sharing of electrons between a carboxyl carbon of one amino acid and an amino nitrogen of another amino acid.
Ans. (b)
Zoology Quiz MCQ Objective type Assertion reason for UPSC
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The synthesis (anabolism) and degradation (catabolism) of protoplasm deals largely with protein metabolism.
Reason (R): Proteins generally form the major constituent of living matter.
Ans. (a)
2. Assertion (A): In starvation and diabetes, the concentration of Free Fatty Acids (FFA) in the blood increases.
Reason (R): The fatty acids circulate in blood in combination with plasma albumin.
Ans. (d)
3. Assertion (A): In spite of sufficient insulin being secreted by the islets of Langerhans, diabetes mellitus may strike an individual.
Reason (R): The number of insulin receptors on the target cells decreases due to a negative feed back mechanism.
Ans. (c)
4. Assertion (A): In metamorphosis tadpole of frog, the tail material is gradually accumulated in the body region and thus helps in disappearance of the tail.
Reason (R): Lysosomes become highly active in the tail region of tadpole.
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A): Monocystis and Plasmodium are included in the class Sporozoa.
Reason (R): Both these genera are internal parasites.
Ans. (b)
6. Assertion (A): Blood of Pheretima is red.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin occurs in the blood corpuscles.
Ans. (c)
7. Assertion (A): Feathers of Columba are water proof.
Reason (R): They are lubricated by secretion of the buccal gland.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Frog has large optic lobes whereas their counterpart in rabbit is much smaller.
Reason (R): In rabbit, the function of optic lobes is carried out by the cerebrum.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Calciferol is antagonistic to calcitonin.
Reason (R): Calciferol is synergistic to parathormone.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): The immediate administration of nitrite is a highly effective treatment for cyanide poisoning.
Reason (R): Nitrite converts ferrohaemoglobin to ferrihaemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihaemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxide for cyanide.
Ans. (a)
11. Assertion (A): On the yearly basis, the net community production in a mature rain-forest tends to be very low or none.
Reason (R): In steady state communities the gross primary production tends to be totally dissipated by the combined autotrophic and heterotrophic respirations.
Ans. (d)
12. Assertion (A): Ethylene oxide has been used as an insecticide.
Reason (R): Ethylene oxide is an anti-cholinesterase.
Ans. (d)
13. Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease.
Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-l-phosphate uridyl 1-transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): The crop milk is produced by both male and female Columba livia.
Reason (R): The males of his species have special milk producing glands.
Ans.(c)
15. Assertion (A): Adults are globular in Asteroidea and Echinoidea but cylindrical in Holothuroidea.
Reason (R): Relative development of ambs and interambs determines the shape of the adult body in echinoderms.
Ans. (d)
16. Assertion (A): Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia and Adamsia belong to Ctenophora.
Reason (R): They exhibit radial symmetry are diploblastic and have nematocyst.
Ans. No option is correct
17. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain the protein synthesis stops.
Reason (R): The termination codon reacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF-terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans. (a)
18. Assertion (A): In respiratory acidosis there is an elevation of arterial CO2 and H.
Reason (R): In hypoventilation CO2 is not eliminated as fast as it is produced.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In their role of constricting the arterioles, the effect of vasopressin lasts much longer as compared to the effect adrenaline.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is an amine whereas adrenaline is a polypeptide.
Ans. (c)
20. Assertion (A): Approximately 90% of eukaryotic DNA is not transcribed and translated and lies apparently functionless and dormant.
Reason (R): Natural selection operated to weed out apparently unnecessary DNA.
Ans. (c)
21. Assertion (A): Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R): DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning.
Ans. (c)
22. Assertion (A): A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual1
Reason (R): Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.
Ans.(a)
23. Assertion (A): Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.
Reason (R): It is temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.
Ans. (d)
24. Assertion (A): Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.
Reason (R): Any bacterium can carry expression vector.
Ans.(c)
25. Assertion (A): During protein synthesis, peptide bond formation is a dehydration reaction.
Reason (R): Peptide bond formation is done by sharing of electrons between a carboxyl carbon of one amino acid and an amino nitrogen of another amino acid.
Ans. (b)
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