Botany Multiple Choice Questions With Answers
Solved objective questions botany
multiple choice questions answers for botany for pre medical Exams
1. Syconus fruit develops from:
(a) catkin
(b) verticillaster
(c) hypanthodium
(d) cyathium
Ans. (c)
2. The minimum time interval required between application of stimulus and production of response is
(a) presentation time
(b) relaxation time
(c) conversion time
(d) reaction time
Ans. (d)
3. Father of Indian green revolution is:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Ans. (c)
4. Chromosome end is called
(a) telomere
(b) centromere
(c) satellite
(d) maramere
Ans. (a)
5. A medicinal plant is:
(a) Cryptostegia grandiflora
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Rauwolffia serpentina
(d) Brassica oleracea
Ans. (c)
6. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:
(a) ribosomes and r-RNA
(b) only r-RNA
(c) peroxisomes
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of m-RNA
Ans. (d)
7. Number of ATP molecules produced by each NADPH is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
8. The term protoplasm was coined by:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Dujardin
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Purkinje
Ans. (d)
9. Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) cytochrome
(d) dehydrogenase
Ans. (b)
10. An algae rich in proteins is:
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(C) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Ans. (a)
11. The loading of phloem during translocation means:
(a) elongation of phloem cells
(b) separation of phloem parenchyma
(c) strengthening of phloem fibers
(d) pouring of sugars into phloem
Ans. (d)
12. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in:
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
Ans. (c)
13. In C3 plants first stable product photosynthesis during dark reaction is:
(a) PGA
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid
Ans. (a)
14. Plant hormone causing abscission of leaves, senescence, bud dormancy and inhibition of cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA
Ans. (d)
15. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to:
(a) high sunlight intensity
(b) low sunlight intensity
(c) absorption of yellow pigment from the soil
(d) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
Ans. (d)
16. Vascular cryptogams are:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Spermatophytes
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
17. Gasohol is:
(a) 20 % ethanol + 80 % petrol
(b) 20 % ethanol + 70% petrol + 10% kerosene
(c) 10% ethanol + 80% petrol+ 10% kerosene
(d) 10 % ethanol + 90 % petrol
Ans. (a)
18. Phytochrome is involved in:
(a) phototropism
(b) photorespiration
(c) photoperiodism
(d) geotropism
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following essential elements can land plants normally obtain directly from air?
(a) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(d) Phosphorus
Ans. (b)
20. Main function of lenticel is:
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) bleeding
(d) gaseous exchange
Ans. (d)
21. In a-helix secondary structure, hydrogen bonds lie between amide group of one amino acid and carbonyl group of:
(a) 2nd amino acid
(b) 3rd amino acid
(c) fourth amino acid
(d) fifth amino acid
Ans. (c)
22. Pomato is somatic hybrid between:
(a) poppy and potato
(b) potato and tomato
(c) poppy and tamarind
(d) poppy and tomato
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) Potometers
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer/barometer
Ans. (b)
24. The protein part of enzyme is:
(a) prosthatic group
(b) apoenzyme
(c) holoenzyme
(d) zymogen
Ans. (b)
25. Pesticides comprise
(a) herbicides and insecticides
(b) insecticides
(c) insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
(d) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematecides and rodenticides
Ans. (d)
Friday, June 3, 2011
Zoology objective practice test
Zoology objective practice test
Zoology Objective Test Online Practice Test
Free Online Test Objective Zoology Quiz
1. Hopanoids are present in membrane of:
(a) all eukaryotes
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)
2. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over in:
(a) nerve fibre
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) skeleton muscle fibre
(d) heart
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following statement is right?
(a) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> pechytene —> zygotene —>diplotene —> diakinesis
(b) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> diplotene —> pechytene —> diakinesis
(c) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> pechytene —> diplotene —> diakinesis
(d) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> diplotene —>zygotene —> pachytene —>diakinesis
Ans. (c)
4. Setae or chaetae are absent on:
(a) peristomium
(b) pygidium
(c) clitellum
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
5. —10 sequence on promoter has 6 nucleotides which have a specific sequence. Which is?
(a) TATATA
(b) TAATAT
(c) TATAAT
(d) TATTAT
Ans. (c)
6. Na+ - K+ ATPase protein required how much ATP molecules for import of two K within the cell?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
7. A protein, which is analogous to eukaryotic histones, present in some species of bacteria:
(a) UH protein
(b) H protein
(c) U protein
(d) RU protein
Ans. (d)
8. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called as
(a) synapse
(b) terminalisation
(c) synopsis
(d) crossing over
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following disease was the first human disease found to be caused by a virus:
(a) smallpox
(b) colorado tick fever
(c) yellow fever
(d) rubella
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smoth muscle
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
11. Who proposed the name m-RNA for the first time?
(a) Lerman
(b) Jacob and Monod
(c) Kelley
(d) Spirin
Ans. (b)
12. ADH and oxytocin are produced by:
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) neurosecretory cell bodies
Ans. (d)
13. Which type of inversion include centromere portion of a chromosome?
(a) Paracentric
(b) Pericentric
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
14. The temperature ranges at which enzymes are maximum functional:
(a) 40— 45°C
(b) 15— 20°C
(c) 30— 45°C
(d) 20— 30°C
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Striated muscle
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Stratified epithelium
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres
Ans. (b)
16. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as:
(a) chlorination
(b) Hamburger phenomenon
(c) bicarbonate shift
(d) CO2 transport
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis ?
(a) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size
(b) It does not help in the maintenance of the equilibrium in the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell
(c) The gonads and sex cells depend on the mitosis for the increase in their number
(d) The old decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by the help of mitosis
Ans. (b)
18. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro-organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as:
(a) vaccine
(b) antibiotic
(c) sera
(d) antitoxins
Ans. (a)
19. In man sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly:
(a) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(b) 2 to 4 feet/minute
(c) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(d) 2 to 4 cm/minute
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following theory explain structure of protoplasm?
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Colloidal theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Viscosity theory
Ans. (b)
21. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that:
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly tha3l passive
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport is confined to anions and cations
(d) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
Ans. (d)
¬¬¬¬22. Ageing of an animal .body is associated with deterioration in its
(a) connective tissue
(b) glandular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) both (b) and (a)
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following factor controls the human population density?
(a) Industry
(b) Climate
(c) Communication
(d) Natural resources
Ans. (b)
24. Christmas disease is another name for:
(a) haemophilia-B
(b) hepatitis-B
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) sleeping sickness
Ans. (a)
25. Taenia solium derives it’s energy from the breakdown of:
(a) nucleic acids
(b) amino acids
(c) glycogen
(d) glycerol
Ans. (c)
Zoology Objective Test Online Practice Test
Free Online Test Objective Zoology Quiz
1. Hopanoids are present in membrane of:
(a) all eukaryotes
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)
2. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over in:
(a) nerve fibre
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) skeleton muscle fibre
(d) heart
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following statement is right?
(a) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> pechytene —> zygotene —>diplotene —> diakinesis
(b) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> diplotene —> pechytene —> diakinesis
(c) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> zygotene —> pechytene —> diplotene —> diakinesis
(d) Prophase-I —> leptotene —> diplotene —>zygotene —> pachytene —>diakinesis
Ans. (c)
4. Setae or chaetae are absent on:
(a) peristomium
(b) pygidium
(c) clitellum
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
5. —10 sequence on promoter has 6 nucleotides which have a specific sequence. Which is?
(a) TATATA
(b) TAATAT
(c) TATAAT
(d) TATTAT
Ans. (c)
6. Na+ - K+ ATPase protein required how much ATP molecules for import of two K within the cell?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
7. A protein, which is analogous to eukaryotic histones, present in some species of bacteria:
(a) UH protein
(b) H protein
(c) U protein
(d) RU protein
Ans. (d)
8. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called as
(a) synapse
(b) terminalisation
(c) synopsis
(d) crossing over
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following disease was the first human disease found to be caused by a virus:
(a) smallpox
(b) colorado tick fever
(c) yellow fever
(d) rubella
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smoth muscle
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
11. Who proposed the name m-RNA for the first time?
(a) Lerman
(b) Jacob and Monod
(c) Kelley
(d) Spirin
Ans. (b)
12. ADH and oxytocin are produced by:
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) neurosecretory cell bodies
Ans. (d)
13. Which type of inversion include centromere portion of a chromosome?
(a) Paracentric
(b) Pericentric
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
14. The temperature ranges at which enzymes are maximum functional:
(a) 40— 45°C
(b) 15— 20°C
(c) 30— 45°C
(d) 20— 30°C
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Striated muscle
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Stratified epithelium
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres
Ans. (b)
16. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as:
(a) chlorination
(b) Hamburger phenomenon
(c) bicarbonate shift
(d) CO2 transport
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis ?
(a) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size
(b) It does not help in the maintenance of the equilibrium in the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell
(c) The gonads and sex cells depend on the mitosis for the increase in their number
(d) The old decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by the help of mitosis
Ans. (b)
18. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro-organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as:
(a) vaccine
(b) antibiotic
(c) sera
(d) antitoxins
Ans. (a)
19. In man sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly:
(a) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(b) 2 to 4 feet/minute
(c) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(d) 2 to 4 cm/minute
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following theory explain structure of protoplasm?
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Colloidal theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Viscosity theory
Ans. (b)
21. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that:
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly tha3l passive
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport is confined to anions and cations
(d) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
Ans. (d)
¬¬¬¬22. Ageing of an animal .body is associated with deterioration in its
(a) connective tissue
(b) glandular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) both (b) and (a)
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following factor controls the human population density?
(a) Industry
(b) Climate
(c) Communication
(d) Natural resources
Ans. (b)
24. Christmas disease is another name for:
(a) haemophilia-B
(b) hepatitis-B
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) sleeping sickness
Ans. (a)
25. Taenia solium derives it’s energy from the breakdown of:
(a) nucleic acids
(b) amino acids
(c) glycogen
(d) glycerol
Ans. (c)
Wednesday, June 1, 2011
Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs
Solved Biology Sample Test For KVS PGT TGT Jobs
BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR PGT TGT
tgt sample paper :Biology
1. Cell theory was propounded by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel and Morgan
(d) Wallace and Darwin
Ans. (a)
2. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book
(a) Origin of Species
(b) Plant Kingdom
(c) Genra Plantarum
(d) Micrographia
Ans. (d)
3. The term ‘protoplasm’ was given by
(a) Purkinje
(b) Dujardin
(c) Brown
(d) Fischer
Ans. (a)
4. Who first coined the word “cell”?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hooke
(c) Schwann
(d) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (b)
5. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(a) Centrosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)
6. Membranes occur in
(a) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm, nuclei and starch grains
(c) Chromosomes, chloroplasts and starch grains
(d) Nuclei, chromosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (a)
7. Chemical nature of ribosomes is
(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Proteins and lipids
(c) Glucose and sucrose
(d) Proteins and RNA
Ans. (d)
8. All are membrane bounded cell organelles except
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)
9. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout the cytoplasm in a cell is
(a) golgi body
(b) mitochondria
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (c)
10. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells, which synthesise
(a) Steroids and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)
11. If cells are broken up and sedimented by centrifugation, the new structure formed in one of the fractions is
(a) Lysosome
(b) Microsome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Ans. (b)
12. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) in trapping light quanta and transforming them into chemical energy
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids and glycoproteins
(d) As energy transferring organelles
Ans. (c)
13. Besides giving out secretory vesicles the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
(a) Lysosome
(b) Plastids
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Cell plates after cell division in plants
Ans. (a)
14. Dictyosomes are
(a) Place of flagellar organelle
(b) Respiratory particle
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Class of ribosomes
Ans. (c)
15. Cellulose and hemicellulose are the constituents of cell wall are synthesized by
(a) Microbodies
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus
Ans. (d)
16. Which organelle changes the chemical energy into utilizable energy?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Microsome
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is NOT a non- protoplasmic cell inclusion?
(a) Cystolith
(b) Starch grain
(c) Raphide
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (d)
18. In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme and cytochrome oxidase is located?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Perimitochondrial space
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Ans. (a)
19. Mitochondria are found
(a) In all cells
(b) Only in plant cells
(c) Only in animal cells
(d) In all eukaryotic cells
Ans. (d)
20. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
(b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplast as well as mitochondria
Ans. (a)
21. If the leaf tissues are carefully fractionated, what part should be alive?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Cell wall
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans. (d)
22. The grana and stroma lamellae are the parts of
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (d)
23. When green tomatoes turn red then
(a) New chloroplast are made
(b) Chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is credited for discovering lysosomes?
(a) M. Calvin
(b) A. Claude
(c) Christian de Duve
(d) L.C. Pauling
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following organelles are the cells ‘garbage disposal system’?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Phagosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (d)
BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR PGT TGT
tgt sample paper :Biology
1. Cell theory was propounded by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel and Morgan
(d) Wallace and Darwin
Ans. (a)
2. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book
(a) Origin of Species
(b) Plant Kingdom
(c) Genra Plantarum
(d) Micrographia
Ans. (d)
3. The term ‘protoplasm’ was given by
(a) Purkinje
(b) Dujardin
(c) Brown
(d) Fischer
Ans. (a)
4. Who first coined the word “cell”?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hooke
(c) Schwann
(d) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (b)
5. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(a) Centrosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)
6. Membranes occur in
(a) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm, nuclei and starch grains
(c) Chromosomes, chloroplasts and starch grains
(d) Nuclei, chromosomes and mitochondria
Ans. (a)
7. Chemical nature of ribosomes is
(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Proteins and lipids
(c) Glucose and sucrose
(d) Proteins and RNA
Ans. (d)
8. All are membrane bounded cell organelles except
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Spherosomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)
9. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout the cytoplasm in a cell is
(a) golgi body
(b) mitochondria
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (c)
10. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells, which synthesise
(a) Steroids and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)
11. If cells are broken up and sedimented by centrifugation, the new structure formed in one of the fractions is
(a) Lysosome
(b) Microsome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Ans. (b)
12. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) in trapping light quanta and transforming them into chemical energy
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids and glycoproteins
(d) As energy transferring organelles
Ans. (c)
13. Besides giving out secretory vesicles the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
(a) Lysosome
(b) Plastids
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Cell plates after cell division in plants
Ans. (a)
14. Dictyosomes are
(a) Place of flagellar organelle
(b) Respiratory particle
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Class of ribosomes
Ans. (c)
15. Cellulose and hemicellulose are the constituents of cell wall are synthesized by
(a) Microbodies
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus
Ans. (d)
16. Which organelle changes the chemical energy into utilizable energy?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Microsome
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is NOT a non- protoplasmic cell inclusion?
(a) Cystolith
(b) Starch grain
(c) Raphide
(d) Mitochondrion
Ans. (d)
18. In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme and cytochrome oxidase is located?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Perimitochondrial space
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Ans. (a)
19. Mitochondria are found
(a) In all cells
(b) Only in plant cells
(c) Only in animal cells
(d) In all eukaryotic cells
Ans. (d)
20. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
(b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplast as well as mitochondria
Ans. (a)
21. If the leaf tissues are carefully fractionated, what part should be alive?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Cell wall
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans. (d)
22. The grana and stroma lamellae are the parts of
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (d)
23. When green tomatoes turn red then
(a) New chloroplast are made
(b) Chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is credited for discovering lysosomes?
(a) M. Calvin
(b) A. Claude
(c) Christian de Duve
(d) L.C. Pauling
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following organelles are the cells ‘garbage disposal system’?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) Phagosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (d)
Friday, May 27, 2011
zoology MCQ for Exams
zoology MCQ for Exams
Competitive exam question in Zoology MCQ questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
1. CO2 and 02 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) photorespiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) leaf anatomy
Ans. (b)
2. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because
(a) amount of sugar increases in them
(b) amount of organic acids decreases in them
(c) chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(d) of ageing
Ans. (c)
3. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) both from water and carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen in air
Ans. (b)
4. A specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to
(a) activate chlorophyll
(b) split water
(c) synthesis glucose
(d) reduce CO2
Ans. (a)
5. Who received Noble Prize for working out the early carbon pathway of
photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin
(b) Krebs
(c) Khorana
(d) Watson
Ans. (a)
6. It the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes double
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Ans. (c)
7. Digestion is
(a) conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(b) conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(c) conversion of food into protoplasm
(d) conversion of non-diffusible food particles into diffusible food
Ans. (d)
8. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function then these are called
(a) acrodont
(b) pleurodont
(c) homodont
(d) heterodont
Ans. (d)
9. The hardest part of a tooth is the
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp
(d) dental tubules
Ans. (b)
10. A bolus is
(a) a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva
(b) the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion in the stomach
(c) the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine
(d) indigestible materials that helps in movement and absorption
Ans. (a)
11. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of
(a) pepsin
(b) rennin
(c) HC1
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
12. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for pepsin, are called
(a) holoenzymes
(b) actinases
(c) zymogens
(d) mucopolysaccharides
Ans. (c)
13. Gasthc digestion takes place efficiently in
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) highly alkaline medium
Ans. (a)
14. Where is bile produced?
(a) In gall bladder
(b) In blood
(c) In liver
(d) In spleen
Ans. (c)
15. Pancreas has
(a) only endocrine cells
(b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(e) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine
(d) only exocrine cells
Ans. (c)
16. The specific function of liver is
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c) histolysis
(d) glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
Ans. (d)
17. Largest gland in human body is
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) pituitary
(d) thyroid
Ans. (a)
18. The tissue respiration refers to
(a) Inspiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Expiration
Ans. (c)
19. The gas-exchange surfaces of larger aquatic animals are
(a) Tracheae
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Gill
(d) Book lungs
Ans. (c)
20. During hibernation, the frog respires by
(a) Lungs only
(b) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(c) Both skin and lungs
(d) Skin only
Ans. (d)
21. The covering of lungs is called
(a) Pericardium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) perichondrium
(d) Peritoneum
Ans. (b)
22. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to
(a) Additional need of 02 for germs
(b) Mental worry of the patient
(c) High temperature of body ‘
(d) Loss of appetite
Ans. (c)
23. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inspiration, is called as
(a) Tidal air volume
(b) Vital lung capacity
(c) Complementally air volume
(d) Total lung capacity
Ans. (b)
24. Amount of 02 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
(a) 40m1
(b) 10ml
(c) 20ml
(d) 30 ml
Ans. (c)
25. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(a) Increase
(c) Affected
(b) Decrease
(d) Stop
Ans. (a)
Competitive exam question in Zoology MCQ questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
1. CO2 and 02 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) photorespiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) leaf anatomy
Ans. (b)
2. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because
(a) amount of sugar increases in them
(b) amount of organic acids decreases in them
(c) chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(d) of ageing
Ans. (c)
3. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) both from water and carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen in air
Ans. (b)
4. A specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to
(a) activate chlorophyll
(b) split water
(c) synthesis glucose
(d) reduce CO2
Ans. (a)
5. Who received Noble Prize for working out the early carbon pathway of
photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin
(b) Krebs
(c) Khorana
(d) Watson
Ans. (a)
6. It the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes double
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Ans. (c)
7. Digestion is
(a) conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(b) conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(c) conversion of food into protoplasm
(d) conversion of non-diffusible food particles into diffusible food
Ans. (d)
8. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function then these are called
(a) acrodont
(b) pleurodont
(c) homodont
(d) heterodont
Ans. (d)
9. The hardest part of a tooth is the
(a) dentine
(b) enamel
(c) pulp
(d) dental tubules
Ans. (b)
10. A bolus is
(a) a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva
(b) the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion in the stomach
(c) the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine
(d) indigestible materials that helps in movement and absorption
Ans. (a)
11. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of
(a) pepsin
(b) rennin
(c) HC1
(d) rennin
Ans. (b)
12. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for pepsin, are called
(a) holoenzymes
(b) actinases
(c) zymogens
(d) mucopolysaccharides
Ans. (c)
13. Gasthc digestion takes place efficiently in
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) highly alkaline medium
Ans. (a)
14. Where is bile produced?
(a) In gall bladder
(b) In blood
(c) In liver
(d) In spleen
Ans. (c)
15. Pancreas has
(a) only endocrine cells
(b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(e) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine
(d) only exocrine cells
Ans. (c)
16. The specific function of liver is
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c) histolysis
(d) glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
Ans. (d)
17. Largest gland in human body is
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) pituitary
(d) thyroid
Ans. (a)
18. The tissue respiration refers to
(a) Inspiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Expiration
Ans. (c)
19. The gas-exchange surfaces of larger aquatic animals are
(a) Tracheae
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Gill
(d) Book lungs
Ans. (c)
20. During hibernation, the frog respires by
(a) Lungs only
(b) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(c) Both skin and lungs
(d) Skin only
Ans. (d)
21. The covering of lungs is called
(a) Pericardium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) perichondrium
(d) Peritoneum
Ans. (b)
22. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to
(a) Additional need of 02 for germs
(b) Mental worry of the patient
(c) High temperature of body ‘
(d) Loss of appetite
Ans. (c)
23. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inspiration, is called as
(a) Tidal air volume
(b) Vital lung capacity
(c) Complementally air volume
(d) Total lung capacity
Ans. (b)
24. Amount of 02 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
(a) 40m1
(b) 10ml
(c) 20ml
(d) 30 ml
Ans. (c)
25. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(a) Increase
(c) Affected
(b) Decrease
(d) Stop
Ans. (a)
Friday, May 13, 2011
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions for UPSC exams
Zoology Quiz MCQ Objective type Assertion reason for UPSC
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The synthesis (anabolism) and degradation (catabolism) of protoplasm deals largely with protein metabolism.
Reason (R): Proteins generally form the major constituent of living matter.
Ans. (a)
2. Assertion (A): In starvation and diabetes, the concentration of Free Fatty Acids (FFA) in the blood increases.
Reason (R): The fatty acids circulate in blood in combination with plasma albumin.
Ans. (d)
3. Assertion (A): In spite of sufficient insulin being secreted by the islets of Langerhans, diabetes mellitus may strike an individual.
Reason (R): The number of insulin receptors on the target cells decreases due to a negative feed back mechanism.
Ans. (c)
4. Assertion (A): In metamorphosis tadpole of frog, the tail material is gradually accumulated in the body region and thus helps in disappearance of the tail.
Reason (R): Lysosomes become highly active in the tail region of tadpole.
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A): Monocystis and Plasmodium are included in the class Sporozoa.
Reason (R): Both these genera are internal parasites.
Ans. (b)
6. Assertion (A): Blood of Pheretima is red.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin occurs in the blood corpuscles.
Ans. (c)
7. Assertion (A): Feathers of Columba are water proof.
Reason (R): They are lubricated by secretion of the buccal gland.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Frog has large optic lobes whereas their counterpart in rabbit is much smaller.
Reason (R): In rabbit, the function of optic lobes is carried out by the cerebrum.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Calciferol is antagonistic to calcitonin.
Reason (R): Calciferol is synergistic to parathormone.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): The immediate administration of nitrite is a highly effective treatment for cyanide poisoning.
Reason (R): Nitrite converts ferrohaemoglobin to ferrihaemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihaemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxide for cyanide.
Ans. (a)
11. Assertion (A): On the yearly basis, the net community production in a mature rain-forest tends to be very low or none.
Reason (R): In steady state communities the gross primary production tends to be totally dissipated by the combined autotrophic and heterotrophic respirations.
Ans. (d)
12. Assertion (A): Ethylene oxide has been used as an insecticide.
Reason (R): Ethylene oxide is an anti-cholinesterase.
Ans. (d)
13. Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease.
Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-l-phosphate uridyl 1-transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): The crop milk is produced by both male and female Columba livia.
Reason (R): The males of his species have special milk producing glands.
Ans.(c)
15. Assertion (A): Adults are globular in Asteroidea and Echinoidea but cylindrical in Holothuroidea.
Reason (R): Relative development of ambs and interambs determines the shape of the adult body in echinoderms.
Ans. (d)
16. Assertion (A): Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia and Adamsia belong to Ctenophora.
Reason (R): They exhibit radial symmetry are diploblastic and have nematocyst.
Ans. No option is correct
17. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain the protein synthesis stops.
Reason (R): The termination codon reacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF-terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans. (a)
18. Assertion (A): In respiratory acidosis there is an elevation of arterial CO2 and H.
Reason (R): In hypoventilation CO2 is not eliminated as fast as it is produced.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In their role of constricting the arterioles, the effect of vasopressin lasts much longer as compared to the effect adrenaline.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is an amine whereas adrenaline is a polypeptide.
Ans. (c)
20. Assertion (A): Approximately 90% of eukaryotic DNA is not transcribed and translated and lies apparently functionless and dormant.
Reason (R): Natural selection operated to weed out apparently unnecessary DNA.
Ans. (c)
21. Assertion (A): Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R): DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning.
Ans. (c)
22. Assertion (A): A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual1
Reason (R): Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.
Ans.(a)
23. Assertion (A): Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.
Reason (R): It is temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.
Ans. (d)
24. Assertion (A): Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.
Reason (R): Any bacterium can carry expression vector.
Ans.(c)
25. Assertion (A): During protein synthesis, peptide bond formation is a dehydration reaction.
Reason (R): Peptide bond formation is done by sharing of electrons between a carboxyl carbon of one amino acid and an amino nitrogen of another amino acid.
Ans. (b)
Zoology Quiz MCQ Objective type Assertion reason for UPSC
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The synthesis (anabolism) and degradation (catabolism) of protoplasm deals largely with protein metabolism.
Reason (R): Proteins generally form the major constituent of living matter.
Ans. (a)
2. Assertion (A): In starvation and diabetes, the concentration of Free Fatty Acids (FFA) in the blood increases.
Reason (R): The fatty acids circulate in blood in combination with plasma albumin.
Ans. (d)
3. Assertion (A): In spite of sufficient insulin being secreted by the islets of Langerhans, diabetes mellitus may strike an individual.
Reason (R): The number of insulin receptors on the target cells decreases due to a negative feed back mechanism.
Ans. (c)
4. Assertion (A): In metamorphosis tadpole of frog, the tail material is gradually accumulated in the body region and thus helps in disappearance of the tail.
Reason (R): Lysosomes become highly active in the tail region of tadpole.
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A): Monocystis and Plasmodium are included in the class Sporozoa.
Reason (R): Both these genera are internal parasites.
Ans. (b)
6. Assertion (A): Blood of Pheretima is red.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin occurs in the blood corpuscles.
Ans. (c)
7. Assertion (A): Feathers of Columba are water proof.
Reason (R): They are lubricated by secretion of the buccal gland.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Frog has large optic lobes whereas their counterpart in rabbit is much smaller.
Reason (R): In rabbit, the function of optic lobes is carried out by the cerebrum.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Calciferol is antagonistic to calcitonin.
Reason (R): Calciferol is synergistic to parathormone.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): The immediate administration of nitrite is a highly effective treatment for cyanide poisoning.
Reason (R): Nitrite converts ferrohaemoglobin to ferrihaemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihaemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxide for cyanide.
Ans. (a)
11. Assertion (A): On the yearly basis, the net community production in a mature rain-forest tends to be very low or none.
Reason (R): In steady state communities the gross primary production tends to be totally dissipated by the combined autotrophic and heterotrophic respirations.
Ans. (d)
12. Assertion (A): Ethylene oxide has been used as an insecticide.
Reason (R): Ethylene oxide is an anti-cholinesterase.
Ans. (d)
13. Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease.
Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-l-phosphate uridyl 1-transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): The crop milk is produced by both male and female Columba livia.
Reason (R): The males of his species have special milk producing glands.
Ans.(c)
15. Assertion (A): Adults are globular in Asteroidea and Echinoidea but cylindrical in Holothuroidea.
Reason (R): Relative development of ambs and interambs determines the shape of the adult body in echinoderms.
Ans. (d)
16. Assertion (A): Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia and Adamsia belong to Ctenophora.
Reason (R): They exhibit radial symmetry are diploblastic and have nematocyst.
Ans. No option is correct
17. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain the protein synthesis stops.
Reason (R): The termination codon reacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF-terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans. (a)
18. Assertion (A): In respiratory acidosis there is an elevation of arterial CO2 and H.
Reason (R): In hypoventilation CO2 is not eliminated as fast as it is produced.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In their role of constricting the arterioles, the effect of vasopressin lasts much longer as compared to the effect adrenaline.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is an amine whereas adrenaline is a polypeptide.
Ans. (c)
20. Assertion (A): Approximately 90% of eukaryotic DNA is not transcribed and translated and lies apparently functionless and dormant.
Reason (R): Natural selection operated to weed out apparently unnecessary DNA.
Ans. (c)
21. Assertion (A): Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R): DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning.
Ans. (c)
22. Assertion (A): A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual1
Reason (R): Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.
Ans.(a)
23. Assertion (A): Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.
Reason (R): It is temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.
Ans. (d)
24. Assertion (A): Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.
Reason (R): Any bacterium can carry expression vector.
Ans.(c)
25. Assertion (A): During protein synthesis, peptide bond formation is a dehydration reaction.
Reason (R): Peptide bond formation is done by sharing of electrons between a carboxyl carbon of one amino acid and an amino nitrogen of another amino acid.
Ans. (b)
Saturday, April 23, 2011
objective zoology for PMT
objective zoology for PMT
Free Biology Cbse Pmt Online Practice Test
question bank pmt zoology
1. Philadelphia chromosome is reported in patients suffering from:
(a) Insomnia
(b) Leukaemia
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Hepatitis
Ans. (b)
2. ‘Sudan Black B’ stain is used to stain:
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Protein
(c) Polysaccharide
(d) Lipid
Ans. (d)
3. Which one of the following said that cells originate from pre existing cells?
(a) Virchow
(b) Schleiden
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Dujardin
Ans. (a)
4. The desmosomes are concerned with:
(a) Cell division
(b) Cell adherence
(c) Cytolysis
(d) Cellu4r excretion
Ans. (b)
5. Tectonic is the study of:
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Earth’s crust
(c) Sand dunes
(d) Sun
Ans. (a)
6. Karyolymph is:
(a) Nuclear
(b) Nuclear sap
(c) Spem membrane
(d) Cell sap
Ans. (b)
7. Terminalization is a process related with
(a) Diakinesis
(b) Cytokinesis
(c) Meiosis II
(d) Mitosis
Ans. (a)
8. Ventral root of spinal nerve is composed of:
(a) Somatic motor and visceral sensory fibres
(b) Somatic sensory and visceral sensory fibres
(c) Somatic motor and visceral motor fibres
(d) Somatic sensory and visceral motor fibres
Ans. (c)
9. Which malarial parasite has the longest incubation period?
(a) Plasmodiuin vivax
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium falciparum
(d) Plasmodium malariae
Ans. (d)
10. Pathogen for French pox is:
(a) Variola
(b) Rubeola
(c) Treponema
(d) Trachorna
Ans. (c)
11. Camouflage of Chameleon is associated with:
(a) chromomere
(b) chromozone
(c) chromoplast
(d) chromatophore
Ans. (d)
12. Stenson’s duct is associated with:
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Cardi gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Mushroom gland
Ans. (a)
13. The gland controlling egg production of moulting in insects
(a) Corpora cardiacum
(b) Corpora allata
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Corpus luteum
Ans. (b)
14. A woman showing extra Barr bodies in chromosome during amniocentesis is showing that the embryo is associated with:
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Patau’s syndrome
Ans. (a)
15. Aflatoxins are produced by:
(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Traponema
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Penicillium chryosogenum
Ans. (b)
16. Lethal gene of Drosophila is:
(a) Curly wings (Cy)
(b) Plum eyes (Pm)
(c) Stubbles (Sub)
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following is viral disease?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Smallpox
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following is not a plant product?
(a) Flax
(b) Cotton
(c) Hemp
(d) Silk
Ans. (d)
19. In earthworm, self fertilization can not occur due to:
(a) Hypogyny
(b) Protogymy
(c) Protoandry
(d) Epigymy
Ans. (c)
20. Chemoreceptor in Pila is:
(a) Radula
(b) Osphradium
(c) Ctenidum
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
21. Pounched mammals are known as:
(a) Prototherians
(b) Metatherians
(c) Eutherians
(d) Therians
Ans. (b)
22. Balbiani rings are found in:
(a) Polysomes
(b) Polytene chromosomes
(c) Autosomes
(d) Non-sense chromosomes
Ans. (b)
23. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called as:
(a) Chhorion
(b) Corona radiata
(c) Zona pellucida
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. A disease in many Africans which reduces oxygen uptake by blood and is genetic disease called
(a) Anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Pemecious anaemia
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans. (d)
25. In cockroach, the ootheca is formed by the secretion of:
(a) Phallic gland
(b) Mushroom gland
(c) Collaterial glan4
(d) Conglabate gland
Ans. (c)
Directions: In the following questions more than one answer given may be correct select the correct answers according to the code—
Code—
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
26. In the immune system of body:
(1) Only protein serve as immunogens for cell mediated immunity
(2) Lipids and nucleic acid do not serve as immunogens
(3) Immunogenicity is an intrinsic property of a macromolecule
(4) Immune system recognises bacterial products and fungal parasites
Ans. (c)
27. The branches of trigeminal nerve are:
(1) Opthalmic
(2) Mandibular
(3) Glossopharyngeal
(4) Maxillary
Ans. (c)
28. Excessive secretion of somatotropin leads to a disorder called
(1) Giantism
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Cretinism
(4) Addison’s disease
Ans. (b)
29. LH in human female is:
(1) Facilitates luteinisation of granulosa cells of ovulated follicle
(2) Called ovulation hormone
(3) Helps in milk eyection
(4) Activate Leydig’s cell to secrete androgen
Ans. (b)
30. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Clitoris—erectile body in female homologous to glans penis of male
(2) Sexual inter course—coirtus
(3) Colostrum—secretion found in seminal fluid
(4) Areola—pigmented circular area around the nipple
Ans. (d)
31. The organs which have duel origin form embryonic layers:
(1) Hypophysis
(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Sense organs
(4) Pancreas
Ans. (a)
32. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Allopatric species—separated by distance barrier
(2) Darwin’s finches—unique to Galapagos Island
(3) Coacervates—aggregates of large complex organic compounds bound by a membrane
(4) Species are not—Lamarckism immutable
Ans. (a)
33. Amniocentesis is a method to:
(1) Detect genetic disorder in an unborn baby
(2) Prenatal sex-determination
(3) Medical termination of pregnancy
(4) Fertilize the egg
Ans. (b)
34. Biomedical technique commonly used are:
(1) Magneto—study of brain in health and encephalography disease
(2) PET imaging—measurment of cerebral blood volume and flow rate
(3) Nuclear induction method—discovered by Banting and Best
(4) Tomography—treatment by radiation
Ans. (a)
35. Which one is correct?
(1) Modem classification—based on phylogeny
(2) Artificial classification—Theophrastus
(3) Biometry—study of geographical distribution of organisms
(4) Natural classification—based on genetic and reproductive character
Ans. (c)
36. The larval forms of Taenia solium are:
(1) Hexacanth
(2) Bladder worm
(3) Miracidium
(4) Cysticercus
Ans. (c)
37. The amphibians which show parental care:
(1) Pipa americana
(2) Alytes obstetrecons
(3) Ichthyophis
(4) Rana tigrina
Ans. (b)
38. The striated muscles are characterised that:
(1) They are multinucleate and syncytial
(2) Sarcolemma is found over them
(3) Are found in pulmonary vein
(4) Jaw muscles are striated, voluntary and strongest
Ans. (c)
39. In the given statements:
(1) Fundic stomach is the site of digestion
(2) Cardiac glands are found in stomach
(3) Pepsinogen is secreted by paneth cells of crypts of lieberkuhn
(4) Gastric juice has pH 2.0
Ans. (c)
40. Identify the correctly matched pair:
(1) Uremia—excessive amount of urea in blood
(2) Hyperglycemia—excess glucose in blood
(3) Absence of factor-VIII—hemophilia
(4) X-linked disorder—glycosuria
Ans. (a)
41. Among the given statement:
(1) Larynx is larger in human males than in females
(2) The air tube in mammals is called trachea
(3) Bifurcation of trachea is called bronchi
(4) Sound producing organ of human female is syrinx
Ans. (a)
42. True statement about the respiratory process in human, is/are:
(1) Human males use thoracic rib cage and diaphragm for breathing while females use only thoracic rib cage
(2) In normal expiration the diaphragm is arched
(3) High temperature of body ptomates accelerated breathing
(4) The rate of respiration is slowest while eating food
Ans. (a)
43. On the basis of nature of maternal and foetal tissue, types of placenta are
(1) Haemochorial placenta
(2) Haemoendothelial placenta
(3) Cotyledonary placenta
(4) Deciduate placenta
Ans. (b)
44. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?
(1) Light chain
(2) Heavy chain
(3) Intermediate chains
(4) Plasma cells
Ans. (b)
45. Types of quill (flight) feathers are
(1) Down feathers
(2) Covert
(3) Filoplume
(4) Remiges
Ans. (c)
46. Linkage groups:
(1) Have genes which were linked together in a single chromosomes
(2) Shows independent assortment
(3) Do not show independent assortment
(4) In prokaryotes are more than one
Ans. (d)
47. G1omrular filterate is:
(1) Formed continuously by the process of ultrafilteration occurring at malpighian corpuscles in which the blood cells and the colloidal macromolecues are not allowed to pass across the filtering surface
(2) The lipid free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(3) The protein free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(4) Formed by the process of selective reabsorption
Ans. (d)
48. Robert Hooke is:
(1) Father of Cytology
(2) Coined the term ‘cell’
(3) Father of Physiology
(4) Father of Modern Genetics
Ans. (b)
49. Blood does not clot inside the vessels because
(1) Constant speedy flow of blood prevents accumulation of fibrin threads, if at all formed
(2) Absence of heparin, an anticoagulant having antithrombin activity, in blood
(3) Smoothness of the endothelial lining prevents rupture of platelets and formation of thromboplastin from them
(4) Presence of monomolecular layer of negatively charged protein adsorbed to the inner surface of endothelium which attracts the clotting factors
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following conditions are responsible for sweating to occur?
(1) Increase of blood temperature due to excessive heat production in the body, e.g., vigorous muscular exercise
(2) Emotional conditions like fear, anger, anxiety, excitement, mental tension etc
(3) During breathing distress and cardiac abnormalities
(4) During drinking
Ans. (a)
Free Biology Cbse Pmt Online Practice Test
question bank pmt zoology
1. Philadelphia chromosome is reported in patients suffering from:
(a) Insomnia
(b) Leukaemia
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Hepatitis
Ans. (b)
2. ‘Sudan Black B’ stain is used to stain:
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Protein
(c) Polysaccharide
(d) Lipid
Ans. (d)
3. Which one of the following said that cells originate from pre existing cells?
(a) Virchow
(b) Schleiden
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Dujardin
Ans. (a)
4. The desmosomes are concerned with:
(a) Cell division
(b) Cell adherence
(c) Cytolysis
(d) Cellu4r excretion
Ans. (b)
5. Tectonic is the study of:
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Earth’s crust
(c) Sand dunes
(d) Sun
Ans. (a)
6. Karyolymph is:
(a) Nuclear
(b) Nuclear sap
(c) Spem membrane
(d) Cell sap
Ans. (b)
7. Terminalization is a process related with
(a) Diakinesis
(b) Cytokinesis
(c) Meiosis II
(d) Mitosis
Ans. (a)
8. Ventral root of spinal nerve is composed of:
(a) Somatic motor and visceral sensory fibres
(b) Somatic sensory and visceral sensory fibres
(c) Somatic motor and visceral motor fibres
(d) Somatic sensory and visceral motor fibres
Ans. (c)
9. Which malarial parasite has the longest incubation period?
(a) Plasmodiuin vivax
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium falciparum
(d) Plasmodium malariae
Ans. (d)
10. Pathogen for French pox is:
(a) Variola
(b) Rubeola
(c) Treponema
(d) Trachorna
Ans. (c)
11. Camouflage of Chameleon is associated with:
(a) chromomere
(b) chromozone
(c) chromoplast
(d) chromatophore
Ans. (d)
12. Stenson’s duct is associated with:
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Cardi gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Mushroom gland
Ans. (a)
13. The gland controlling egg production of moulting in insects
(a) Corpora cardiacum
(b) Corpora allata
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Corpus luteum
Ans. (b)
14. A woman showing extra Barr bodies in chromosome during amniocentesis is showing that the embryo is associated with:
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Patau’s syndrome
Ans. (a)
15. Aflatoxins are produced by:
(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Traponema
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Penicillium chryosogenum
Ans. (b)
16. Lethal gene of Drosophila is:
(a) Curly wings (Cy)
(b) Plum eyes (Pm)
(c) Stubbles (Sub)
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following is viral disease?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Smallpox
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following is not a plant product?
(a) Flax
(b) Cotton
(c) Hemp
(d) Silk
Ans. (d)
19. In earthworm, self fertilization can not occur due to:
(a) Hypogyny
(b) Protogymy
(c) Protoandry
(d) Epigymy
Ans. (c)
20. Chemoreceptor in Pila is:
(a) Radula
(b) Osphradium
(c) Ctenidum
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
21. Pounched mammals are known as:
(a) Prototherians
(b) Metatherians
(c) Eutherians
(d) Therians
Ans. (b)
22. Balbiani rings are found in:
(a) Polysomes
(b) Polytene chromosomes
(c) Autosomes
(d) Non-sense chromosomes
Ans. (b)
23. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called as:
(a) Chhorion
(b) Corona radiata
(c) Zona pellucida
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. A disease in many Africans which reduces oxygen uptake by blood and is genetic disease called
(a) Anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Pemecious anaemia
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans. (d)
25. In cockroach, the ootheca is formed by the secretion of:
(a) Phallic gland
(b) Mushroom gland
(c) Collaterial glan4
(d) Conglabate gland
Ans. (c)
Directions: In the following questions more than one answer given may be correct select the correct answers according to the code—
Code—
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
26. In the immune system of body:
(1) Only protein serve as immunogens for cell mediated immunity
(2) Lipids and nucleic acid do not serve as immunogens
(3) Immunogenicity is an intrinsic property of a macromolecule
(4) Immune system recognises bacterial products and fungal parasites
Ans. (c)
27. The branches of trigeminal nerve are:
(1) Opthalmic
(2) Mandibular
(3) Glossopharyngeal
(4) Maxillary
Ans. (c)
28. Excessive secretion of somatotropin leads to a disorder called
(1) Giantism
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Cretinism
(4) Addison’s disease
Ans. (b)
29. LH in human female is:
(1) Facilitates luteinisation of granulosa cells of ovulated follicle
(2) Called ovulation hormone
(3) Helps in milk eyection
(4) Activate Leydig’s cell to secrete androgen
Ans. (b)
30. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Clitoris—erectile body in female homologous to glans penis of male
(2) Sexual inter course—coirtus
(3) Colostrum—secretion found in seminal fluid
(4) Areola—pigmented circular area around the nipple
Ans. (d)
31. The organs which have duel origin form embryonic layers:
(1) Hypophysis
(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Sense organs
(4) Pancreas
Ans. (a)
32. Correctly matched pairs are:
(1) Allopatric species—separated by distance barrier
(2) Darwin’s finches—unique to Galapagos Island
(3) Coacervates—aggregates of large complex organic compounds bound by a membrane
(4) Species are not—Lamarckism immutable
Ans. (a)
33. Amniocentesis is a method to:
(1) Detect genetic disorder in an unborn baby
(2) Prenatal sex-determination
(3) Medical termination of pregnancy
(4) Fertilize the egg
Ans. (b)
34. Biomedical technique commonly used are:
(1) Magneto—study of brain in health and encephalography disease
(2) PET imaging—measurment of cerebral blood volume and flow rate
(3) Nuclear induction method—discovered by Banting and Best
(4) Tomography—treatment by radiation
Ans. (a)
35. Which one is correct?
(1) Modem classification—based on phylogeny
(2) Artificial classification—Theophrastus
(3) Biometry—study of geographical distribution of organisms
(4) Natural classification—based on genetic and reproductive character
Ans. (c)
36. The larval forms of Taenia solium are:
(1) Hexacanth
(2) Bladder worm
(3) Miracidium
(4) Cysticercus
Ans. (c)
37. The amphibians which show parental care:
(1) Pipa americana
(2) Alytes obstetrecons
(3) Ichthyophis
(4) Rana tigrina
Ans. (b)
38. The striated muscles are characterised that:
(1) They are multinucleate and syncytial
(2) Sarcolemma is found over them
(3) Are found in pulmonary vein
(4) Jaw muscles are striated, voluntary and strongest
Ans. (c)
39. In the given statements:
(1) Fundic stomach is the site of digestion
(2) Cardiac glands are found in stomach
(3) Pepsinogen is secreted by paneth cells of crypts of lieberkuhn
(4) Gastric juice has pH 2.0
Ans. (c)
40. Identify the correctly matched pair:
(1) Uremia—excessive amount of urea in blood
(2) Hyperglycemia—excess glucose in blood
(3) Absence of factor-VIII—hemophilia
(4) X-linked disorder—glycosuria
Ans. (a)
41. Among the given statement:
(1) Larynx is larger in human males than in females
(2) The air tube in mammals is called trachea
(3) Bifurcation of trachea is called bronchi
(4) Sound producing organ of human female is syrinx
Ans. (a)
42. True statement about the respiratory process in human, is/are:
(1) Human males use thoracic rib cage and diaphragm for breathing while females use only thoracic rib cage
(2) In normal expiration the diaphragm is arched
(3) High temperature of body ptomates accelerated breathing
(4) The rate of respiration is slowest while eating food
Ans. (a)
43. On the basis of nature of maternal and foetal tissue, types of placenta are
(1) Haemochorial placenta
(2) Haemoendothelial placenta
(3) Cotyledonary placenta
(4) Deciduate placenta
Ans. (b)
44. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?
(1) Light chain
(2) Heavy chain
(3) Intermediate chains
(4) Plasma cells
Ans. (b)
45. Types of quill (flight) feathers are
(1) Down feathers
(2) Covert
(3) Filoplume
(4) Remiges
Ans. (c)
46. Linkage groups:
(1) Have genes which were linked together in a single chromosomes
(2) Shows independent assortment
(3) Do not show independent assortment
(4) In prokaryotes are more than one
Ans. (d)
47. G1omrular filterate is:
(1) Formed continuously by the process of ultrafilteration occurring at malpighian corpuscles in which the blood cells and the colloidal macromolecues are not allowed to pass across the filtering surface
(2) The lipid free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(3) The protein free fluid collected within the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
(4) Formed by the process of selective reabsorption
Ans. (d)
48. Robert Hooke is:
(1) Father of Cytology
(2) Coined the term ‘cell’
(3) Father of Physiology
(4) Father of Modern Genetics
Ans. (b)
49. Blood does not clot inside the vessels because
(1) Constant speedy flow of blood prevents accumulation of fibrin threads, if at all formed
(2) Absence of heparin, an anticoagulant having antithrombin activity, in blood
(3) Smoothness of the endothelial lining prevents rupture of platelets and formation of thromboplastin from them
(4) Presence of monomolecular layer of negatively charged protein adsorbed to the inner surface of endothelium which attracts the clotting factors
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following conditions are responsible for sweating to occur?
(1) Increase of blood temperature due to excessive heat production in the body, e.g., vigorous muscular exercise
(2) Emotional conditions like fear, anger, anxiety, excitement, mental tension etc
(3) During breathing distress and cardiac abnormalities
(4) During drinking
Ans. (a)
Zoology objective test For IAS Prelims
Zoology objective test For IAS Prelims
IAS Prelims Papers Free Download Zoology
prelims IAS zoology solved Model paper
1. Which one of the following insects is known to be primitively apterous?
(a) Pediculus
(b) Cimex
(c) Xenopsylla
(d) Lepisma
Ans. (d)
2. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Sea slug 1. Scaphopoda
B. Green house slug 2. Nudibranchia
C. Squids 3. Pulmonata
D. Tooth shells 4. Cephalopoda
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (c)
3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Asteroidea— Asterias
(b) Echinoidea—Astropecten
(c) Holothuroidea— Cucumaria
(d) Crinoidea— Antedon
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
(a) Monocystis — Digenetic
(b) Paramecium — Conjugation
(c) Hydra — Budding
(d) Fasciola — Hermaphrodite
Ans. (a)
5. Totipotency phenomenon in Hydra is best demonstrated by
(a) Nutritive cells
(b) Nematocysts
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (c)
6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Gastropod 1. Fasciola
B. Archnida 2. Pila
C. Ciliata 3. Paramecium
D. Trematoda 4. Buthus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c)
7. In Nereis, mature and ripe gametes are discharged out of the body segments through
(a) a pair of genital ducts present in each segment that open on the ventro-lateral surface
(b) a genital duct of temporary nature that opens through a temporary pore formed in dorsally situated ciliated organ
(c) nephridiopore via nephridia present in each segment
(d) a pair of large unbranched glandular pouches or caeca that open into oesophagus, and finally through anus
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following is the correct order in which podomeres appear in a leg of a scorpion?
(a) Trochanter, femur, patella, coxa, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(b) Coxa, trochanter, femur, protarsus, tarsus, tibia, patella
(c) Coxa, trochanter, femur, patella, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(d) Coxa, femur, tibia, trochanter, patella, protarsus, tarsus.
Ans. (c)
9. Snails have a hard cone-shaped external shell. When left undisturbed, the animal is able to extend itself for a considerable degree beyond the mouth of the shell. However, a portion of the body always remains concealed in the interior of the conical shell even when the animal has extended itself to its utmost. Which of the reason(s) given below explain(s) this phenomenon?
(i) The body is organically connected with the interior of the shell.
(ii) The twisted shell the torsioned body presents a physical impediment that does not allow the full animal to go out.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i alone
(b) ii alone
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
Ans. (b)
10. The juvenile hormone in insect is secreted from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) mushroom gland
(d) corpora allata
Ans. (d)
11. The glochidium larval form of a freshwater bivalve survives on a fish host. In the fish, it is attached to the
(a) skin
(b) gills
(c) wall of alimentary canal
(d) lining of blood vessels
Ans. (b)
12. From the functional point of view, the adductor muscle of bivalve are
(a) non-striated fibres with sustained action
(b) striated fibres with sustained action
(c) slow-acting non-striated fibres
(d) quick-acting striated fibres
Ans. (d)
13. Match list-I (patterns of cleavage) with list-II (group of animals) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. Radial 1. Echinodermata
B. Spiral 2. Mollusca
C. Bilateral 3. Ascidia
D. Irregular 4. Coelenterate
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 13 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
1999
14. One of the major events associated with amoeboid locomotion is
(a) actin polymerization
(b) activation of acetyicholinesterase
(c) chromosome condensation
(d) microfilament disruption’
Ans. (a)
15. The protozoan species actinophrys solution is commonly known as
(a) slipper animalcule
(b) sun animalcule
(c) whell animalcule
(d) homancule
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements
(i) Xenopsylla belongs to the sub-class Pterygota of the class Insecta
(ii) Locomotory organelle of Mastigophora is flagella
(iii) Euspongia is common bath sponge
(iv) Coelenterates are pseudocoelomates
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) i alone
(b) i and ii
(c) i, ii and ii
(d) ii, iii and iv
Ans. (c)
17. In which one of the following animals does the same opening function both as the mouth and the anus?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(d) Obelia
(c) Peripatus
Ans. (d)
18. Which one of the following is not applicable to all the three helminthes, Taenia, Fasciola and Planaria?
(a) Triploblastic forms
(b) Absence of metamerism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Absence of definite circulatory and respiratory systems
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides — Round worm
(b) Enterobius vermicularis — Pin worm
(c) Drancunculus medinensis — Filarial worm
(d) Plasmodium vivax — Malarial parasite
Ans. (c)
20. Which one of the following is the correct example for a pseudocoelomate animal?
(a) Taenia solium
(b) Fasciola hepatica
(c) Schistosoma indicum
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides
Ans. (d)
21. The derids are the
(a) excretory organs situated on the side of excretory pores of ainnelids
(b) sense organs situated on each side at the level of excretory pore of nematodes
(c) associated structures near the reproductive organs of annelids
(d) excretory organs of some arthropods
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following annelids becomes brilliantly luminous in the dark?
(a) Pheretima
(b) Hirudo
(c) Nereis
(d) Chaetopterus
Ans. (d)
23. The following tissues exist in the body wall of earthworm
1. Epidermis
2. Longitudinal layer of muscles
3. Circular layer of muscles
4. Cuticle
5. Dermis
The correct sequence of these tissues is:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
(d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Ans. (d)
24. Most of the lower aquatic animals such as protozoans, annelids, molluscs etc., are anamonotelic, because
(a) ammonia helps in checking in flow of water into 1ody
(b) excretion of ammonia requires large amount of water which is available to these animals
(c) water available to these animals contain less nitrogen
(d) ammonia can be converted into urea
Ans. (b)
25. Molluscs with radula having rows of teeth diverging like the ribs of fan belong to
(a) Nudibranchia
(b) Scaphopoda
(c) Rhipidoglossa
(d) Docoglossa
Ans. (d)
26. Heterocotylization is a special modification during the breeding season of
(a) Loligo
(b) Octopus
(c) Nautilus
(d) Sepia
Ans. (c)
27. Ambulacral grooves are closed in
(a) Ophiuroidea
(b) Holothuroidea
(c) Crinoidea
(d) Echinoidea
Ans. (a)
28. Lambda particles in Paramecium are particles which
(a) cause the sensitive Paramecia to lyse or disintegrate
(b) induce the Paramecia to start reproducing
(c) induce the Paramecia to stop reproducing
(d) control digestion at intervals
Ans. (a)
29. Conjugation (amphimixis) type of reproduction in Paramecium is an indication of high level of specialization where individuals of
(a) different syngens participate
(b) the same syngens belonging to two opposite mating types participate
(c) same syngens and same mating type participate
(d) the same mating type participate
Ans. (b)
30. The plasma membrane of Amoeba is
(a) sufficiently firm but elastic
(b) unable to regulate the chemical exchange between the protoplasm and outside environment
(c) unable to form pseudopodia
(d) unable to perform pinocytosis through it
Ans. (a)
31. Water vascular system in Sycon exhibits which one of the following courses following water current?
(a) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
(b) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — gastral ostia —spongocoel — osculum — outside
(c) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle - excurrent canal
osculum — outside
(d) Ingressing water — Sub-dermal space — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
Ans. (a)
32. In the eurypylous leucon type water vascular system, the flagellated chamber exhibits specialization over other types in having a
(a) small chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called prosodus
(b) small chamber - which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called aphodus
(c) big chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by both prosodus and aphodus
(d) small chamber which opens into excurrent canal by abroad aperture, apopyle
Ans. (d)
33. In the adult medusoid form of Obelia, the lithocysts which coordinate swimming movements are present at the bases of
(a) all the tentacles
(b) only four tentacles, juxtaposing the termini of the four radial canals
(c) eight of the tentacles, two in each quadrant
(d) sixteen tentacles which initially appear in the newly born medusa
Ans. (c)
34. Given below are some glands of Fasciola and their respective functions:
(i) Mehlis’s glands — Shell formation
(ii) Vitelline glands — Yolk formation
(iii) Prostate glands — Sperm movement during copulation
Select the correct match using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Ans. (b)
35. Which one of the following features explains the process of apolysis in Taenia?
(a) Regeneration of segments
(b) Shedding of gravid proglottid
(c) Development of male reproductive organs
(d) Development of female reproductive organs
Ans. (b)
36. In which one of the following cnidarians is only one ventral siphonoglyph present?
(a) Alcyonaria
(b) Hexacorallia
(c) Hydrozoa
(d) Scyphozoa
Ans. (b)
37. In the life-cycle of members of the class Digenea, the correct sequence of larval multiplication is
(a) Miracidium-metacercaria-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-miracidium
(b) Sporocyst with rediae-cercaria.rediae with cercaria metacercaria-miracidium
(c) Miracidium-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-cercaria-metacercaria
(d) Metacercaria-cercaria-rediae with cercaria-sporocyst with rediae-miracidium
Ans. (c)
38. A cestode, which does not require an intermediate host is
(a) Dipkyllobothrium laturn
(b) Moniezia expansa
(c) Hymenolepis nama
(d) Taenia saginata
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following animals
I. Ascaris (Round worm)
II. Wuchereria (Filaria worm)
III. Ancylostoma (Hookworm)
1V. Fasciola (Liver fluke)
The animals which belongs to phylum Aschehninthes are
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans. (a)
40. Extra-intestinal migration is characteristic of the life history of
(a) liver-fluke
(b) intestinal round-worm
(c) malarial parasite
(d) tapeworm
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the following pigments occurs in the blood of crustaceans?
(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Chlorocruorin
Ans. (b)
42. Ecdysone, the moulting hormone in insects is liberated from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) corpora allata
(d) X-organ
Ans. (b)
43. In which one of the following groups is the earliest known larva invariably a metanauplius?
(a) Copepoda
(b) Ostracoda
(c) Cephalocarida
(d) Branchiopoda
Ans. Any option is not correct
44. Single pair of well-developed adductor muscle and byssus gland is present in
(a) Lamellidens
(b) Mytilus
(c) Unio
(d) Pila
Ans. (b)
45. Which one of the following cephalopodan molluscs does not have the ink gland?
(a) Sepia
(b) Loligo
(c) Octopus
(d) Nautilus
Ans. (d)
46. Which one of the following molluscs does not have either an external or an internal shell?
(a) Sepia
(b) Octopus
(c) Aplysia
(d) Doris
Ans. (b)
47. In which one of the following classes of Echinodermata does one come across auricularia larva?
(a) Asteroidea
(b) Echinoidea
(c) Holothuroidea
(d) Ophiuroidea
Ans. (c)
48. Consider the following pairs:
1. Contractile — Osmoregulation vacuole
2. Syzygy — Monocystis
3. Undulating membrane — Plasmodium membrane
4. Pseudopodia — Paramecium
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)
49. Consider the following pairs:
(i) Lithocytrs — Obelia
(ii) Choanocytes — Sycon
(iii) Chloragogen cells — Pheretima
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Ans. (d)
50. Match list-I (animal phyla) with list-II (names of types of cells/tissues present in the phylum) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Porifera 1. Choanocytes
B. Coelenterata 2. Solenocytes
C. Platyhehminthes 3. Botryoidal tissue
D. Hirudinea 4. Cnidocytes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)
IAS Prelims Papers Free Download Zoology
prelims IAS zoology solved Model paper
1. Which one of the following insects is known to be primitively apterous?
(a) Pediculus
(b) Cimex
(c) Xenopsylla
(d) Lepisma
Ans. (d)
2. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Sea slug 1. Scaphopoda
B. Green house slug 2. Nudibranchia
C. Squids 3. Pulmonata
D. Tooth shells 4. Cephalopoda
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (c)
3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Asteroidea— Asterias
(b) Echinoidea—Astropecten
(c) Holothuroidea— Cucumaria
(d) Crinoidea— Antedon
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
(a) Monocystis — Digenetic
(b) Paramecium — Conjugation
(c) Hydra — Budding
(d) Fasciola — Hermaphrodite
Ans. (a)
5. Totipotency phenomenon in Hydra is best demonstrated by
(a) Nutritive cells
(b) Nematocysts
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (c)
6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Gastropod 1. Fasciola
B. Archnida 2. Pila
C. Ciliata 3. Paramecium
D. Trematoda 4. Buthus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c)
7. In Nereis, mature and ripe gametes are discharged out of the body segments through
(a) a pair of genital ducts present in each segment that open on the ventro-lateral surface
(b) a genital duct of temporary nature that opens through a temporary pore formed in dorsally situated ciliated organ
(c) nephridiopore via nephridia present in each segment
(d) a pair of large unbranched glandular pouches or caeca that open into oesophagus, and finally through anus
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following is the correct order in which podomeres appear in a leg of a scorpion?
(a) Trochanter, femur, patella, coxa, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(b) Coxa, trochanter, femur, protarsus, tarsus, tibia, patella
(c) Coxa, trochanter, femur, patella, tibia, protarsus, tarsus
(d) Coxa, femur, tibia, trochanter, patella, protarsus, tarsus.
Ans. (c)
9. Snails have a hard cone-shaped external shell. When left undisturbed, the animal is able to extend itself for a considerable degree beyond the mouth of the shell. However, a portion of the body always remains concealed in the interior of the conical shell even when the animal has extended itself to its utmost. Which of the reason(s) given below explain(s) this phenomenon?
(i) The body is organically connected with the interior of the shell.
(ii) The twisted shell the torsioned body presents a physical impediment that does not allow the full animal to go out.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i alone
(b) ii alone
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
Ans. (b)
10. The juvenile hormone in insect is secreted from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) mushroom gland
(d) corpora allata
Ans. (d)
11. The glochidium larval form of a freshwater bivalve survives on a fish host. In the fish, it is attached to the
(a) skin
(b) gills
(c) wall of alimentary canal
(d) lining of blood vessels
Ans. (b)
12. From the functional point of view, the adductor muscle of bivalve are
(a) non-striated fibres with sustained action
(b) striated fibres with sustained action
(c) slow-acting non-striated fibres
(d) quick-acting striated fibres
Ans. (d)
13. Match list-I (patterns of cleavage) with list-II (group of animals) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. Radial 1. Echinodermata
B. Spiral 2. Mollusca
C. Bilateral 3. Ascidia
D. Irregular 4. Coelenterate
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 13 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
1999
14. One of the major events associated with amoeboid locomotion is
(a) actin polymerization
(b) activation of acetyicholinesterase
(c) chromosome condensation
(d) microfilament disruption’
Ans. (a)
15. The protozoan species actinophrys solution is commonly known as
(a) slipper animalcule
(b) sun animalcule
(c) whell animalcule
(d) homancule
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements
(i) Xenopsylla belongs to the sub-class Pterygota of the class Insecta
(ii) Locomotory organelle of Mastigophora is flagella
(iii) Euspongia is common bath sponge
(iv) Coelenterates are pseudocoelomates
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) i alone
(b) i and ii
(c) i, ii and ii
(d) ii, iii and iv
Ans. (c)
17. In which one of the following animals does the same opening function both as the mouth and the anus?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(d) Obelia
(c) Peripatus
Ans. (d)
18. Which one of the following is not applicable to all the three helminthes, Taenia, Fasciola and Planaria?
(a) Triploblastic forms
(b) Absence of metamerism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Absence of definite circulatory and respiratory systems
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides — Round worm
(b) Enterobius vermicularis — Pin worm
(c) Drancunculus medinensis — Filarial worm
(d) Plasmodium vivax — Malarial parasite
Ans. (c)
20. Which one of the following is the correct example for a pseudocoelomate animal?
(a) Taenia solium
(b) Fasciola hepatica
(c) Schistosoma indicum
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides
Ans. (d)
21. The derids are the
(a) excretory organs situated on the side of excretory pores of ainnelids
(b) sense organs situated on each side at the level of excretory pore of nematodes
(c) associated structures near the reproductive organs of annelids
(d) excretory organs of some arthropods
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following annelids becomes brilliantly luminous in the dark?
(a) Pheretima
(b) Hirudo
(c) Nereis
(d) Chaetopterus
Ans. (d)
23. The following tissues exist in the body wall of earthworm
1. Epidermis
2. Longitudinal layer of muscles
3. Circular layer of muscles
4. Cuticle
5. Dermis
The correct sequence of these tissues is:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
(d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Ans. (d)
24. Most of the lower aquatic animals such as protozoans, annelids, molluscs etc., are anamonotelic, because
(a) ammonia helps in checking in flow of water into 1ody
(b) excretion of ammonia requires large amount of water which is available to these animals
(c) water available to these animals contain less nitrogen
(d) ammonia can be converted into urea
Ans. (b)
25. Molluscs with radula having rows of teeth diverging like the ribs of fan belong to
(a) Nudibranchia
(b) Scaphopoda
(c) Rhipidoglossa
(d) Docoglossa
Ans. (d)
26. Heterocotylization is a special modification during the breeding season of
(a) Loligo
(b) Octopus
(c) Nautilus
(d) Sepia
Ans. (c)
27. Ambulacral grooves are closed in
(a) Ophiuroidea
(b) Holothuroidea
(c) Crinoidea
(d) Echinoidea
Ans. (a)
28. Lambda particles in Paramecium are particles which
(a) cause the sensitive Paramecia to lyse or disintegrate
(b) induce the Paramecia to start reproducing
(c) induce the Paramecia to stop reproducing
(d) control digestion at intervals
Ans. (a)
29. Conjugation (amphimixis) type of reproduction in Paramecium is an indication of high level of specialization where individuals of
(a) different syngens participate
(b) the same syngens belonging to two opposite mating types participate
(c) same syngens and same mating type participate
(d) the same mating type participate
Ans. (b)
30. The plasma membrane of Amoeba is
(a) sufficiently firm but elastic
(b) unable to regulate the chemical exchange between the protoplasm and outside environment
(c) unable to form pseudopodia
(d) unable to perform pinocytosis through it
Ans. (a)
31. Water vascular system in Sycon exhibits which one of the following courses following water current?
(a) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
(b) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — gastral ostia —spongocoel — osculum — outside
(c) Ingressing water — dermal ostia — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle - excurrent canal
osculum — outside
(d) Ingressing water — Sub-dermal space — incurrent canal — prosopyle — radial canal — apopyle — spongocoel — osculum — outside
Ans. (a)
32. In the eurypylous leucon type water vascular system, the flagellated chamber exhibits specialization over other types in having a
(a) small chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called prosodus
(b) small chamber - which communicates with the excurrent canal by a tube called aphodus
(c) big chamber which communicates with the excurrent canal by both prosodus and aphodus
(d) small chamber which opens into excurrent canal by abroad aperture, apopyle
Ans. (d)
33. In the adult medusoid form of Obelia, the lithocysts which coordinate swimming movements are present at the bases of
(a) all the tentacles
(b) only four tentacles, juxtaposing the termini of the four radial canals
(c) eight of the tentacles, two in each quadrant
(d) sixteen tentacles which initially appear in the newly born medusa
Ans. (c)
34. Given below are some glands of Fasciola and their respective functions:
(i) Mehlis’s glands — Shell formation
(ii) Vitelline glands — Yolk formation
(iii) Prostate glands — Sperm movement during copulation
Select the correct match using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Ans. (b)
35. Which one of the following features explains the process of apolysis in Taenia?
(a) Regeneration of segments
(b) Shedding of gravid proglottid
(c) Development of male reproductive organs
(d) Development of female reproductive organs
Ans. (b)
36. In which one of the following cnidarians is only one ventral siphonoglyph present?
(a) Alcyonaria
(b) Hexacorallia
(c) Hydrozoa
(d) Scyphozoa
Ans. (b)
37. In the life-cycle of members of the class Digenea, the correct sequence of larval multiplication is
(a) Miracidium-metacercaria-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-miracidium
(b) Sporocyst with rediae-cercaria.rediae with cercaria metacercaria-miracidium
(c) Miracidium-sporocyst with rediae-rediae with cercaria-cercaria-metacercaria
(d) Metacercaria-cercaria-rediae with cercaria-sporocyst with rediae-miracidium
Ans. (c)
38. A cestode, which does not require an intermediate host is
(a) Dipkyllobothrium laturn
(b) Moniezia expansa
(c) Hymenolepis nama
(d) Taenia saginata
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following animals
I. Ascaris (Round worm)
II. Wuchereria (Filaria worm)
III. Ancylostoma (Hookworm)
1V. Fasciola (Liver fluke)
The animals which belongs to phylum Aschehninthes are
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans. (a)
40. Extra-intestinal migration is characteristic of the life history of
(a) liver-fluke
(b) intestinal round-worm
(c) malarial parasite
(d) tapeworm
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the following pigments occurs in the blood of crustaceans?
(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Chlorocruorin
Ans. (b)
42. Ecdysone, the moulting hormone in insects is liberated from
(a) corpora cardiaca
(b) prothoracic gland
(c) corpora allata
(d) X-organ
Ans. (b)
43. In which one of the following groups is the earliest known larva invariably a metanauplius?
(a) Copepoda
(b) Ostracoda
(c) Cephalocarida
(d) Branchiopoda
Ans. Any option is not correct
44. Single pair of well-developed adductor muscle and byssus gland is present in
(a) Lamellidens
(b) Mytilus
(c) Unio
(d) Pila
Ans. (b)
45. Which one of the following cephalopodan molluscs does not have the ink gland?
(a) Sepia
(b) Loligo
(c) Octopus
(d) Nautilus
Ans. (d)
46. Which one of the following molluscs does not have either an external or an internal shell?
(a) Sepia
(b) Octopus
(c) Aplysia
(d) Doris
Ans. (b)
47. In which one of the following classes of Echinodermata does one come across auricularia larva?
(a) Asteroidea
(b) Echinoidea
(c) Holothuroidea
(d) Ophiuroidea
Ans. (c)
48. Consider the following pairs:
1. Contractile — Osmoregulation vacuole
2. Syzygy — Monocystis
3. Undulating membrane — Plasmodium membrane
4. Pseudopodia — Paramecium
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)
49. Consider the following pairs:
(i) Lithocytrs — Obelia
(ii) Choanocytes — Sycon
(iii) Chloragogen cells — Pheretima
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Ans. (d)
50. Match list-I (animal phyla) with list-II (names of types of cells/tissues present in the phylum) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Porifera 1. Choanocytes
B. Coelenterata 2. Solenocytes
C. Platyhehminthes 3. Botryoidal tissue
D. Hirudinea 4. Cnidocytes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)
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